State securities law, in nine chapters.
The Series 63 centers on the Uniform Securities Act, the model statute that each U.S. state adapts into its own "blue sky law." But the 2023 exam outline adds a federal and FINRA component: Regulation Best Interest, communications, recordkeeping, options, margin, SIPC. So you need definitions, exceptions, ethics, and a little arithmetic.
What the exam weighs
Official NASAA breakdown of the 60 scored questions (outline in effect since June 2023). Click a row to open the chapter. Communications and ethics are worth 45% between them: do not leave them for the end.
The remaining 5 questions are unscored pretest questions, and nothing sets them apart from the others: treat all 65 with the same care.
What can be tested
| State law | Federal law and FINRA rules |
|---|---|
| The 1956 Uniform Securities Act with NASAA's updates and commentary, in its entirety. The 2002 Act is not tested. | Securities Act of 1933 (§ 5), Securities Exchange Act of 1934 (§ 15, § 28(e)), Investment Advisers Act of 1940 (§ 203, § 203A) |
| NASAA Statements of Policy: dishonest or unethical business practices of BDs and agents (1983), investment company shares (1997) | SEC rules: 17a-3, 17a-4, Regulation Best Interest (15l-1), Regulation S-P, Rule 203A-1; Form BD and Form U4 |
| Model Act on vulnerable adults (2016); rules on sales at financial institutions (1998) | FINRA rules: 2040, 2111, 2121, 2210, 2360, 3110, 3210, 4210, 4512; Regulatory Notice 10-22 |
| Model rules on investment advisers: practices, recordkeeping, contracts, custody, information security, IAR examinations | Other topics: Howey test, Regulation T, Uniform Prudent Investor Act, tombstone ads, options valuation, insider trading, SIPC, wrap fee programs |
How to use this course
- Read the chapters in order. Chapter 1 sets out the vocabulary that everything else depends on.
- Do the quiz sets at the bottom of each chapter right after reading it. The questions are written in the format you will see on exam day; the explanations also tell you why each wrong answer is wrong.
- Review with the flashcards, the glossary, and the "Key numbers" page: deadlines and thresholds are the easiest points to earn.
- Finish with the practice exams: three separate exams of 65 questions, none of them seen in the quizzes, in 75 minutes, scored out of 60 with the passing mark of 43. Aim for 80% before you book your date.
Three-week study plan
| Period | Work | Time |
|---|---|---|
| Days 1 to 3 | On day 1, the "Exam in practice" page for the routine for reading a question, then chapters 1 to 3 (foundations, broker-dealers, agents) and their quizzes | 2 hr / day |
| Days 4 to 7 | Chapters 4 to 7 (advisers, IARs, securities, remedies), one per day, and their quizzes | 2 hr / day |
| Days 8 to 11 | Chapters 8 and 9, the two heaviest: two days each, one section per session, then the quiz sets | 2 hr / day |
| Days 12 to 14 | Key numbers, the flashcards marked "not known," glossary; redo the quiz sets you failed and the "To review" page | 1 hr 30 min / day |
| Days 15 to 20 | Practice exams A, B, and C, one every other day; the day after each, reread the sections where you scored under 70% | 1 hr 15 min + review |
| Day before | Key numbers one last time, the "Exam day" section of the "Exam in practice" page, then rest | 30 min |
The exam is written by NASAA and administered by FINRA at Prometric test centers. No sponsor is required and there are no prerequisites (neither the SIE nor the Series 7). Passing it does not by itself give you the right to do business: you still have to be registered in each state concerned.
Enrollment, the 120-day window, what happens on exam day, and the waiting periods after a failed attempt are described on the page.
The exam is taken at a Prometric test center; according to NASAA's 2025 FAQ, the online proctored exam is offered only as an approved accommodation. The fee and these arrangements can change: confirm them at nasaa.org (Exams → Series 63) and finra.org. This course follows the NASAA exam outline in effect since June 12, 2023, and its official presentation dated September 1st, 2023, as well as the Uniform Securities Act of 1956 as amended by NASAA. Federal figures that have changed since then (the qualified client thresholds, the gift limit, the pattern day trader rule) are flagged along with the old value, because exam questions can be slow to catch up.
NASAA has since published texts more recent than those in the exam outline: a model rule on dishonest or unethical business practices of broker-dealers and agents (April 7, 2025) and May 4, 2026 versions of the adviser model rules (practices, recordkeeping). They are not on the exam as long as the exam outline has not changed: the exam still tests the 1983, 2011, 2013, and 2019 versions presented here. Check nasaa.org to make sure no new outline has been published before your date.
The exam in practice
How you enroll, what happens at the test center, how to read a NASAA question, and the signs that tell you that you are ready.
Enrolling
- With a firm. If you are hired by a broker-dealer, the firm enrolls you by filing your Form U4 in the CRD system. You have nothing to do yourself.
- Without a firm. You open an exam window yourself through FINRA's Test Enrollment Services System (TESS), at finra.org, and you pay the fee ($147). No prerequisites: no SIE, no Series 7, no sponsorship.
- The window. Once the request is processed, FINRA opens a 120-day window for you. You must book your date and take the exam within it. If it expires, you have to enroll again and pay again.
- The appointment. You choose a Prometric center and a time slot on Prometric's website. Make sure the name on the enrollment is exactly the one on your ID.
The exam is given in English at a Prometric center. The online exam is offered only as an approved accommodation: NASAA's FAQ reserves it for immunocompromised candidates at risk of serious illness.
If you live outside the United States. NASAA's FAQ confirms that its exams are also given at centers located outside the United States, and refers to FINRA's website for the list of locations. FINRA states that the process there is essentially the same as in the United States, that a consent form for the processing of personal data must be signed on site, and that a $15 surcharge is charged for a session taken abroad. The list of cities changes and is not reproduced here: before you pay for enrollment, check on Prometric's booking site that a center you can get to does offer the Series 63, and on which dates.
Exam day
- Arrive 30 minutes before your appointment time. Being more than 30 minutes late can cost you the session and the fee.
- Identification: one currently valid government-issued ID with a photo and a signature (passport, driver's license). The name must match the name on the enrollment exactly.
- Personal belongings: everything goes in a locker, including your phone, watch, wallet, and notes. You will be asked to show that your pockets are empty. The room is video-recorded.
- Provided by the center: a basic four-function calculator, erasable boards with markers for scratch work, noise-reducing headphones. You bring neither a calculator nor paper.
- Time: 75 minutes for 65 questions. The appointment also includes a 30-minute block for the computer tutorial and the end-of-session survey: that time cannot be used for the exam and does not count toward the 75 minutes. A restroom break is possible, but the clock does not stop.
- During the exam: one question at a time; you can mark a question and come back to it; you can change an answer as long as you have not finished. There is no penalty for a wrong answer: do not leave any question unanswered.
- The result appears on screen shortly after you finish, and you are handed a printed report: pass or fail. If you fail, you receive your result by section, which tells you what to rework. No certificate is sent afterward.
Pass: the exam remains valid for 2 years for obtaining a registration in a state. Once you are registered, it remains valid for as long as you stay registered. Remember that passing does not give you the right to do business: you need a firm, a Form U4, and an effective registration in each state.
Fail: a 30-day wait after the first failure, 30 days after the second, 180 days after the third and any later ones. For exam windows opened on or after January 4, 2027, that last waiting period is reduced to 60 days (third failure within a two-year period). The rule follows the date your exam window was opened, not the date of the failure: a window opened before January 4, 2027, remains subject to the 180 days. Each new attempt has to be paid for. Source: NASAA's FAQ.
How to approach a NASAA question
The questions do not reward reading speed; they reward precision. Almost every one contains a word that decides the answer. Make this routine a habit on every quiz question, so that it is automatic on exam day:
- Read the last sentence first. It is the one that asks the question. You will then read the scenario knowing what you are looking for.
- Spot the word that reverses the question: EXCEPT, NOT, LEAST, false. In an EXCEPT question, three answers are true and you are looking for the false one. Write "T / F" on your board next to each letter if you need to.
- Identify who is who. Agent of a broker-dealer or of an issuer? State-registered adviser or federal covered? Retail or institutional client? With or without an office in the state? The same situation gets a different answer depending on these roles.
- Identify the source being tested. "Under the Uniform Securities Act" or "under NASAA's Statement of Policy" calls for the state rule; "under FINRA rules" or "under Regulation Best Interest" calls for the federal rule. When the two differ (borrowing from a customer, the length of a hold on a disbursement), that wording decides. The exam does not always name the exact source: "under the Uniform Securities Act" may refer to the Act itself or to a NASAA model rule, and "pursuant to the Securities Exchange Act" may refer to an SEC rule. This course gives the source of each rule so that you know which level it belongs to.
- Answer before you read the choices, in your head, then look for your answer among them. You will be less tempted by a well-phrased distractor.
- Eliminate. Two choices are usually clearly wrong. Between the two that remain, be wary of absolutes (always, never, automatically, under any circumstances): they are often wrong, except for antifraud and guarantees, where the absolute is the rule.
Questions with statements I, II, III, IV
These give four numbered statements, and the choices are combinations ("I and III only," "II, III and IV only"). Do not look for the combination: judge each statement separately, true or false, then see which combination matches. Tip: as soon as you are sure that a statement is false, cross out every choice that contains it; often only one or two are left.
If you are just starting out, you will understand the substance of this example after chapter 5; for now, take away only the routine, that is, the order of the five steps.
"An investment adviser representative employed by a federal covered adviser has her only office in State A. She has 14 retail clients in State B, whom she advises by telephone. In State B, she:"
- What is being asked: her obligation in State B.
- Who is who: an IAR; her employer is a federal covered adviser; she has no office in B.
- The trap being set: "14 clients" makes you think of the 5-client de minimis, and therefore of "must register."
- The rule: for the IAR of a federal covered adviser, you do not count clients; she registers only where she has a place of business.
- The answer: she does not have to register in B. If the question had said "state-registered adviser," the answer would have been the opposite.
Managing the 75 minutes
- 75 minutes for 65 questions: a little under 70 seconds per question. Definition questions take 20 seconds; save the time for the scenarios and the calculations.
- Checkpoints: question 22 at about the 25th minute, question 44 at about the 50th. If you are behind, speed up on the definitions, not on the scenarios.
- If a question holds you up for more than a minute and a half: pick the most likely answer, mark it, move on. You will come back to it if there is time left.
- Change an answer on review only if you have found a specific reason (a word you misread, a rule you remembered). A mere doubt is not enough.
- Five questions do not count, and you do not know which ones. A question that seems strange or off the outline may be one of them: do not let it throw you.
- For calculations (options, margin, SIPC), write the data on the board before you calculate. Mistakes almost always come from a forgotten piece of data (the factor of 100 in an option contract, the SIPC limit on cash).
How to know you are ready
The actual passing mark is 43 out of 60, or 72%. Aim higher in practice, because the real questions will be worded differently from the ones you know, and stress costs a few points.
| Sign | What to look for |
|---|---|
| Practice exams | At least 48 out of 60 (80%) on two different practice exams, done in 75 minutes, without consulting the course |
| No weak section | No section under 70% in the section-by-section breakdown, especially Communications and Ethics, which are worth 27 questions out of 60 |
| Quiz sets | Every set redone at 80% or better, and you can say why each wrong answer is wrong |
| Numbers | The "Key numbers" page recited with the left column covered |
| Explanation | You can explain out loud, without notes, the distinctions in the list below |
| Time | You finish a practice exam with at least 10 minutes to spare |
The distinctions you must be able to explain without hesitating. This list is an end-of-course check: if you have not read the course yet, these words are unfamiliar to you, and that is normal. Come back to it after chapter 9.
- exclusion and exemption; exempt security and exempt transaction;
- agent of a broker-dealer and agent of an issuer;
- the adviser's de minimis, and the absence of one for the broker-dealer and the agent;
- registration and notice filing; state-registered adviser and federal covered adviser; where the IAR of each one registers;
- filing, coordination, qualification;
- deny, suspend, revoke, cancel, withdraw; cease and desist and injunction;
- criminal and civil; the two cases for an offer of rescission;
- where an offer is made and where it is accepted;
- retail communication and correspondence; static and interactive content;
- the agent's discretion and the adviser's discretion; Reg BI and fiduciary duty;
- what the NASAA list says and what FINRA says about borrowing from a customer and about vulnerable adults.
Do not take another exam right away. Open the answer review and sort your mistakes into three piles: a rule you did not know (reread the section), a rule you knew but applied incorrectly (redo the corresponding worked example), a question you misread (apply the reading routine). The third pile is often the biggest, and it is the easiest to shrink.
Foundations: who regulates what
Almost every question on the exam comes down to: "does this person or this product fall within the definition?" Master the definitions and half the work is done. This chapter is not a separately scored section: its concepts are tested in the "Securities and Issuers" and "Remedies" sections.
Why these laws exist
In the early 20th century, anyone could sell a Kansas farmer shares in an imaginary gold mine. Nothing required the seller to prove that the mine existed, or to say what he was keeping for himself. In 1911, Kansas passed the first law requiring securities and salespeople to be registered with the state. These laws came to be called blue sky laws, because they targeted speculative schemes that had, in the words of a Supreme Court justice in 1917, no more basis than "so many feet of blue sky." The other states followed, each with its own statute.
After the crash of 1929, Congress added a federal layer: the Securities Act of 1933 for securities offerings, the Securities Exchange Act of 1934 for markets and intermediaries, then the Investment Advisers Act of 1940 for advisers. The state laws did not go away, however. A U.S. securities professional therefore lives under two regulators at once: the federal regulator and the regulator of each state where he or she works. The Series 63 covers the second, with as much of the first as you need to understand where the boundary lies.
Because each state had written its own law, a broker active in twenty states had to know twenty statutes. In 1956, a commission of lawyers (the Uniform Law Commission) drafted a model statute, the Uniform Securities Act, which the states could adopt. That text, with NASAA's additions, is what the exam tests: it will never ask you for the particular rule of Texas or California.
The whole Act rests on three tools. Keep them in mind, because every chapter of the course develops one of them:
- Register the persons who sell securities or give advice about them (chapters 2 to 5). The regulator knows who they are, checks their background, and can take away their right to do business.
- Register the securities offered to the public (chapter 6). The investor has verifiable information before buying.
- Prohibit fraud (chapters 7 to 9). This tool applies to everyone and to all securities, including when the first two do not apply.
The person protected is the ordinary investor, the one who has neither the means nor the knowledge to investigate on his or her own. That is why you will see the same logic everywhere: the more able the buyer is to fend for itself (a bank, an insurer, a pension fund), the fewer formalities the law requires; the more vulnerable the buyer, the more it requires. When you are unsure about a question, ask yourself which answer best protects the small investor: it is often the right one.
The market concepts you need to know
The exam assumes that you know the products and the players. Here is the minimum, to read once if you have never worked in U.S. finance.
The products
- Equity securities (stock, share, equity): an ownership interest in a company (corporation). The shareholder receives a dividend if the company pays one, votes at shareholder meetings, and gains or loses with the share price. Common stock is the ordinary share; preferred stock carries a fixed dividend paid before the dividend on common stock, usually without voting rights. Treasury stock is stock that the company has bought back and holds itself.
- Debt securities (bond): a loan made to the issuer. The holder receives interest (the coupon) and repayment of the principal at maturity. A debenture is a corporate bond with no specific collateral; a note is a debt security with a shorter maturity. A municipal bond is issued by a state or a local government; Treasury securities are issued by the federal government.
- Funds (investment company): a company that pools the money of many investors to invest it in a portfolio of securities. A mutual fund (open-end investment company: "open-end" because it creates new shares with every purchase) issues and redeems its shares every day at their net asset value. A closed-end fund issues a fixed number of shares, which then trade on an exchange. An exchange-traded fund (ETF) is a fund whose shares trade on an exchange during the trading day, like a stock; it most often tracks an index. A unit investment trust (UIT) is a fund with a fixed portfolio that no one manages once it has been set up. Fees and share classes are explained in chapter 9.
- Derivatives: an option gives the right to buy (call) or to sell (put) a security at a set price for a limited time (chapter 8). A warrant is a long-term right, issued by the company itself, to buy its stock at a set price. A right (subscription right) is a short-term right given to existing shareholders to subscribe to a new issue.
- Insurance products: an annuity is a contract under which an insurer pays out a stream of income in exchange for a premium. In a fixed annuity, the insurer guarantees the amount; in a variable annuity, the amount depends on funds chosen by the customer. Traditional life insurance comes in three forms: whole life (coverage for the insured's entire life, with a fixed premium and death benefit), term life (death coverage limited to a set period), and endowment (a fixed sum, paid on a set date or at death). In all three, the insurer bears the risk.
- Bank products: the savings account and the certificate of deposit (CD), a fixed-rate deposit for a set term. They are insured by the FDIC, the federal deposit insurance agency, up to the legal limit.
- Retirement accounts: the IRA (individual account), the 401(k) (employer plan), and the Keogh (plan for the self-employed) are tax-advantaged wrappers. Securities are held inside them, but the wrapper is not a security. A Roth IRA is an IRA funded with contributions that have already been taxed, from which withdrawals are then tax-free. A rollover is the transfer of assets from one plan to another, for example from a 401(k) to an IRA when leaving an employer.
- Partnerships: in a partnership, partners run a business together. In a general partnership, all of them manage and all of them are liable for the debts. In a limited partnership, a general partner manages and is liable for the debts without limit, while the limited partners contribute capital, do not manage, and risk only what they put in. A limited partner's interest is a passive investment: that is what will make it a security.
The markets
- Primary market: the issuer sells new securities and receives the money. The first sale of stock to the public is called an initial public offering (IPO). The investment banks that organize the sale are the underwriters (chapter 6).
- Secondary market: investors trade already-issued securities among themselves, on a stock market (exchange: NYSE, Nasdaq) or directly through dealers (over-the-counter, OTC). The issuer receives nothing.
The intermediaries
Two professions share the customers, and the law treats them differently because the way they are paid does not create the same temptations.
- The broker-dealer executes transactions. When it acts as a broker, it finds a counterparty for the customer's order and earns a commission. When it acts as a dealer, it sells the customer a security that it owns (or buys the customer's security) and earns the price difference, the markup or markdown. It is paid per trade: the risk is that it pushes for too many trades.
- The investment adviser sells advice. It is paid by fees, most often an annual percentage of the assets it manages. It has an ongoing relationship with the client: the law imposes a fiduciary duty on it, the most demanding duty there is.
In practice, the same firm often holds both registrations, and the same person can be both an agent (for the brokerage side) and an IAR (for the advisory side). The exam checks that you know which hat that person is wearing in the situation described.
The framework
- Uniform Securities Act (USA): a model statute, not a federal law. Each state adopts it with its own variations. These laws are called blue sky laws. The exam tests the 1956 version as amended by NASAA.
- Administrator: the state's securities regulator (sometimes called the Commissioner). This is the central figure of the exam.
- NASAA: the association of Administrators. It writes the exam, the model rules, and the statements of policy, which have the force of law only where a state adopts them.
- NSMIA (National Securities Markets Improvement Act, 1996): the federal law that divided the roles between the SEC and the states, and created federal covered securities and federal covered advisers.
| Federal source | Subject | Where it comes up in this course |
|---|---|---|
| Securities Act of 1933 | Registration of public offerings, prospectus | Ch. 6: offering process, Regulation D |
| Securities Exchange Act of 1934 | Markets, broker-dealers, fraud, insider trading | Ch. 2, 8, 9: § 15, § 28(e), Rules 17a-3 and 17a-4, Regulation Best Interest |
| Investment Advisers Act of 1940 | Investment advisers | Ch. 4: § 203, § 203A |
| FINRA rules | Conduct of member broker-dealers and their representatives | Ch. 2, 3, 8, 9 |
Who does what
| Body | Nature | Role |
|---|---|---|
| SEC (Securities and Exchange Commission) | Federal agency, created by the Exchange Act of 1934 | Enforces the federal securities laws: registers public offerings, broker-dealers, and large advisers; oversees the markets and the SROs |
| FINRA (Financial Industry Regulatory Authority) | Private body through which the industry regulates itself (self-regulatory organization, SRO), under SEC oversight | Writes and enforces the conduct rules for member broker-dealers; administers the exams (including the Series 63, on NASAA's behalf); maintains the CRD system and BrokerCheck |
| Administrator | State authority | Enforces its state's law: registers firms, individuals, and securities; investigates; imposes sanctions |
| NASAA (North American Securities Administrators Association) | Association of Administrators | Drafts the model texts and the exam. It registers no one and sanctions no one. |
| Federal Reserve Board | Central bank | Sets the credit that broker-dealers may extend to their customers (Regulation T, chapter 8) |
| CFTC | Federal agency | Regulates commodity futures contracts, which are not securities |
| SIPC | Nonprofit organization funded by broker-dealers | Protects customers when a broker-dealer fails (chapter 7) |
The CRD (Central Registration Depository) is the shared database where the registration forms of broker-dealers and their agents are filed; the IARD is its counterpart for advisers. A single electronic filing serves the SEC, FINRA, and the states. BrokerCheck is its public window.
NSMIA: how the federal government and the states divide the territory
Until 1996, a company launching a nationwide offering had to register its securities with the SEC and in every state, and a large adviser was subject to fifty sets of rules. Congress found this duplication unnecessary for players already supervised at the federal level. NSMIA therefore took three main powers away from the states:
- requiring the registration of securities already covered at the federal level, the federal covered securities (exchange-listed securities, investment company shares, certain private placements);
- requiring the registration of advisers registered with the SEC, the federal covered advisers;
- imposing on broker-dealers capital, margin, and recordkeeping requirements that differ from the federal requirements.
What NSMIA left to the states fits in one sentence that you must know by heart: the state can still require a notice filing and fees (a simple filing of information, with no approval to obtain; details in chapters 4 and 6, where you will also see that exchange-listed securities are excused from it), register broker-dealers, agents, and IARs, and above all pursue fraud, whatever the security and whoever the person.
Karim, an agent of a broker-dealer in Denver (Colorado), sells a retiree shares of a company listed on the NYSE, telling him that the dividend is "guaranteed by the government."
- The security is listed: it is a federal covered security. The Colorado Administrator cannot require its registration.
- Karim, however, is an agent: he must be registered in Colorado. NSMIA changed nothing for individuals.
- The statement is false and concerns a material fact: it is fraud under USA § 101, which covers "any security."
Conclusion: the Colorado Administrator has no say over the registration of the security, but can sanction Karim and his firm for the fraud. "Federal covered" limits registration, never antifraud.
Person
The Act constantly says "any person." The word does not refer only to a human being: it covers any entity capable of having rights and obligations. When the Act means a human being, it says individual. The nuance matters: a broker-dealer is a person (most often a company), whereas an agent is necessarily an individual.
USA § 401(j): a person is an individual, a corporation, a partnership, an association, a joint-stock company (an old form of company with shares, whose members remain liable for its debts), a trust where the interests of the beneficiaries are evidenced by a security, an unincorporated organization, a government, or a political subdivision of a government.
Study manuals and question banks add that three categories are not persons, for lack of capacity to enter into a contract: the minor, the deceased, and the person declared mentally incompetent. This exclusion does not appear in the text of the Act. Remember it as a convention: if a question asks who is not a person, that is the expected answer.
A grandmother wants to invest $10,000 in the name of her 12-year-old grandson. The child, a minor, cannot enter into a contract: under the exam convention, he is not a person and can neither open an account nor place an order. The practical solution is an account held by an adult for the child (custodial account): an adult, the custodian, holds the account and places the orders for the child's benefit. The person the agent deals with is the custodian. The same reasoning applies to an estate: the deceased is not a person, but the executor (the person named in the will to settle the estate) is one.
Security
The entire scope of the Act depends on this word. If the product being sold is a security, you have to ask whether it is registered, whether the seller is registered, and the antifraud provisions of the securities law apply. If it is not one, the Administrator has no jurisdiction under this Act (other laws, on insurance or banking, take over). Promoters have therefore always tried to dress up their products to escape the definition, and the law has responded with a very broad definition.
USA § 401(m) gives a list (note, stock, treasury stock, bond, debenture, evidence of indebtedness, certificate of interest or participation in any profit-sharing agreement, collateral-trust certificate, preorganization certificate or subscription, transferable share, investment contract, voting-trust certificate, certificate of deposit for a security, certificates of interest in oil, gas, or mining) and includes warrants and subscription rights on those securities. For unusual instruments, the Howey test (SEC v. W.J. Howey Co., 1946) defines the investment contract with four elements:
- an investment of money,
- in a shared venture (common enterprise),
- with an expectation of profit,
- coming from the efforts of a third party (promoter, manager).
Options: the federal definition (Securities Act § 2(a)(1)) expressly lists puts, calls, straddles and other options on a security or an index of securities, as well as options on foreign currency entered into on a national securities exchange. Series 63 practice questions follow this reading: an exchange-traded option on the Swiss franc is a security; the currency itself, bought for cash, is not.
Indexed annuities (fixed indexed or equity-indexed annuities), whose return tracks an index with a guarantee of principal, are in principle treated as insurance products and not as securities when they meet the conditions set by federal law (the Harkin amendment, Dodd-Frank Act of 2010, § 989J). Do not confuse them with the variable annuity, which is always a security.
Form does not matter: rows of orange trees sold with a management contract, or interests in cattle or vineyards managed by a promoter, are securities if the investor remains passive. No written document is necessary.
The original case helps you remember the test. The Howey company owned orange groves in Florida and sold plots of them to guests of its hotel, tourists who knew nothing about farming. With each plot, it offered a service contract: it cultivated, harvested, sold the oranges, and paid over a share of the profit. Howey argued that it was selling land, not securities. The Supreme Court answered that economic reality counts, not the label: the buyers put in money, their funds were pooled in a single operation, they hoped for a profit, and that profit depended entirely on Howey's work. It was an investment contract, and therefore a security, which should have been registered.
An Oregon promoter offers Diane, a dentist in Seattle, the chance to buy ten rows of vines on his estate for $40,000. He takes care of everything: growing, winemaking, sales. Diane will receive her share of the sales proceeds each year.
- Money invested? Yes: $40,000.
- Common enterprise? Yes: the rows of all the buyers are farmed together, and each buyer's fate depends on the success of the estate.
- Expectation of profit? Yes: she is buying for the income, not to drink the wine.
- Efforts of a third party? Yes: Diane does not prune the vines. Everything depends on the promoter.
Conclusion: it is a security. The promoter must register it (or find an exemption), the person who sells it must be registered, and any false promise is securities fraud.
Change a single fact: Diane buys the plot, spends her weekends there, and grows and sells her grapes herself. The fourth element falls away: it is a real estate purchase, not a security. In a question, always look for who does the work.
| Situation | Who does the work? | Investment contract? |
|---|---|---|
| Vacation condominiums sold with a mandatory rental pool managed by the promoter | The promoter rents the units, collects the rent, and distributes it | Yes |
| Interests in a herd, an orchard, or a vineyard operated by the promoter | The promoter | Yes |
| Limited partnership interest | The general partner; the limited partner is passive | Yes |
| Digital token sold to the public with the promise that the founders' work will give it value | The founders | Yes |
| Franchise that the buyer runs personally day to day | The buyer | No |
| General partnership in which every partner actively manages | The partners themselves | No, as a rule |
The question to ask is always the same: does the expected profit come from the efforts of a third party? If so, it is a security, subject to registration (unless exempt) and to antifraud, whatever its form or its technology.
| Security | Not a security |
|---|---|
| Stocks, treasury stock, bonds, debentures, notes | Fixed annuities, whole life and term life insurance, endowment policies |
| Variable annuities, variable life | Retirement accounts (IRA, Keogh, 401k) as such |
| Options, warrants, rights on securities or on securities indexes | Commodity futures, physical commodities |
| Limited partnership interests, investment contracts | Real estate owned directly, owner-occupied condos |
| Whiskey warehouse receipts, interests in cattle or crops managed by a third party | Collectibles, precious metals, currencies |
| Pre-organization certificates, oil/gas/mining interests | Bank deposits, insured CDs (certificates of deposit) |
A whiskey warehouse receipt is a warehouse receipt representing barrels of whiskey that are still aging, sold as an investment: the buyer will never touch the barrels and is counting on the distiller to age them and resell them. It is the classic example of a product that does not look like a security and is one. A pre-organization certificate is a commitment to subscribe to the securities of a company that has not yet been formed.
An option on a security or on a securities index is a security. A futures contract on a commodity (commodity future) is not one: it falls under the CFTC. And "variable" always means security; "fixed" means insurance product, because the insurer bears the risk.
The right-hand column of the table is explained by a single idea: who bears the investment risk? In a fixed annuity or traditional life insurance, the insurer promises an amount and owes it whatever happens in the markets; the customer does not need the protection of the securities law, because insurance law is enough. In a variable annuity, the premiums are invested in funds and the customer receives whatever those funds are worth: the customer bears the risk, like a shareholder. It is a security, and whoever sells it must have both an insurance license and a registration as an agent.
The same logic applies to the rest of the column. An ounce of gold, a house, a painting, euros: their value does not depend on the work of a promoter. A bank deposit is protected by federal deposit insurance (FDIC). A retirement account is a wrapper: the IRA is not a security, but the stock held inside the IRA is one.
- An insurance agent sells a variable annuity without being registered as an agent, saying that "an annuity is an insurance product." Violation The word "variable" makes it a security.
- A dealer sells gold coins delivered to the customer. Not a security Physical precious metal; no third party is working to create the profit.
- The same dealer sells "participation certificates" in a program in which he buys and resells gold on behalf of the subscribers and shares the gains. Security Money, common enterprise, expected profit, efforts of the dealer: investment contract.
- A company gives a founder, before it is formed, a certificate entitling him to future shares. Security The pre-organization certificate is on the list.
- A customer buys a wheat futures contract. Not a security Commodity future, CFTC jurisdiction. An option on that futures contract is not one either, since the underlying is not a security.
Offer and sale
Registration and antifraud are triggered as soon as there is an offer or a sale. Both definitions turn on the same words: in exchange for something of value (for value). Without consideration, there is neither an offer nor a sale: a true gift is not regulated. But the law knows that promoters disguise sales as gifts, and it recharacterizes sham gifts. Remember too that an offer is enough: an unregistered agent who proposes a security violates the Act even if the prospect says no.
- Sale: every contract of sale or disposition of a security for value (USA § 401(k)(1)).
- Offer: every attempt to dispose of a security, or solicitation of an offer to buy one, for value.
- A security given as a bonus with a purchase (of securities or of anything else) is considered to be offered and sold for value.
- A purported gift of assessable stock (stock on which the issuer can demand money later) is an offer and a sale.
- Selling or offering a warrant, a right, or a convertible security is also offering the underlying security.
- The following are not sales: a genuine pledge or loan (bona fide pledge or loan), a stock dividend for which nothing is paid, acts incident to a shareholder vote on a merger or a reclassification, a court-approved reorganization.
A few explanations of these cases. Assessable stock is stock on which the company can make a "call": it has the right to demand an additional payment from the shareholder later. Whoever receives it as a gift therefore receives a potential debt; the law treats that gift as a sale so that the recipient has the same protections as a buyer. A stock dividend is a dividend paid in new shares instead of cash: the shareholder pays nothing and decides nothing, so there is no sale. A pledge is the use of securities as collateral: the customer hands securities over to a bank to secure a loan; ownership does not change hands.
A car dealer in Phoenix advertises: "With every vehicle purchased this month, ten free shares of our parent company."
- The shares are securities.
- Are they given "for value"? The customer gets them only by buying a car. The law answers that a security given as a bonus is part of what is being purchased: it is offered and sold for value.
- So there is an offer and a sale of securities. The shares must be registered or exempt, and the car dealer, who is distributing securities, has to ask whether it is acting as an agent of the issuer.
Compare this with a grandfather who gives his granddaughter, for her birthday, one hundred shares of common stock that he owns: no payment, no condition, nonassessable stock. That is neither an offer nor a sale.
- A company pays its shareholders a 5% dividend in new shares. Not a sale Stock dividend for which nothing is paid.
- An issuer sells bonds with an attached warrant giving the right to shares. Two offers The bond and the warrant are sold, and the underlying stock is offered at the same time.
- A customer hands 500 shares over to his bank as collateral for a personal loan. Not a sale Bona fide pledge. If the customer does not repay and the bank sells the shares, that sale is a sale (an exempt one: see "pledgee," chapter 6).
- Two companies merge after a vote of their shareholders, who receive shares of the new entity. Not a sale Act incident to a class vote on a merger.
- A start-up "gives" shares to anyone who brings it three new customers. Sale The service rendered is consideration: there is value.
When does the Administrator have jurisdiction?
First, what a "State" is under the Act (USA § 401): any state, territory, or possession of the United States, the District of Columbia, and Puerto Rico. A Canadian province is not one.
An agent in Chicago calls a customer in Florida: which state can sanction him if he lies? The Act looks at neither the nationality nor the residence of the parties. It looks at the path of the offer: where it starts, where it arrives, and where the acceptance is received. Every state touched by that path has jurisdiction, because each has an interest in acting: the state where the offer starts does not want to serve as a base for questionable sellers, and the state where it arrives wants to protect the people who are there.
USA § 414. A state's law applies when an offer to sell is made in that state, or when an offer to buy is made and accepted there.
- An offer is made in a state when it starts there (originates), or when it is directed there by the offeror and received at the place to which it is directed. Neither party needs to be physically present there.
- An offer is accepted in the state where the acceptance is communicated to the offeror, not in the state from which it is mailed.
- Several Administrators can therefore have jurisdiction over the same transaction.
An agent in State A calls a customer, a resident of State B, at her vacation home in State C. The offer originates in A, is directed to C, and is received in C: the Administrators of A and C have jurisdiction. The Administrator of B does not have jurisdiction over this offer, because nothing was directed to B. If the agent had written to the customer's home in B, it would be A and B.
Nora, an agent in Columbus (Ohio), mails an offer to sell to Paul at his home in Indianapolis (Indiana). Paul takes the letter with him on a trip, signs it in Nashville (Tennessee), and mails it from there. Nora receives it at her office in Columbus.
- Where is the offer made? It originates in Ohio and is directed to Indiana, where it is received: Ohio and Indiana.
- Where is the offer accepted? Where the acceptance is communicated to the offeror: in Ohio, at Nora's office. Tennessee is only the mailbox.
- Who has jurisdiction? The Administrators of Ohio and Indiana. The Tennessee Administrator does not: Nora directed nothing there, and the acceptance was not received there.
Method for the exam: draw an arrow for the offer (start, arrival), then an arrow for the acceptance and keep only its tip. The states touched have jurisdiction; places of residence or places passed through that no arrow touches do not.
The practical consequence for you: since an offer is "made" in the state where it is received, an agent who telephones a prospect in another state is making an offer there, and must be registered there before calling (chapter 3). And if the offer contains a lie, both states can act independently, without either one waiting for the other.
There is no offer in the state when the advertisement appears in a newspaper of general circulation that is not published there, or when the newspaper is published there but had more than 2/3 of its circulation outside the state during the past twelve months, or when a radio or television program originates in another state.
Example: a newspaper published in X with 70% of its circulation in Y. No offer in Y (it is not published there), and no offer in X (more than 2/3 outside X). Answer: neither one.
The reason for this exception: the advertiser does not control the circulation of a newspaper or the reach of a station. Without it, an advertisement in a national daily would be an offer in fifty states, and the issuer would have to register everywhere before publishing. The exception protects only the advertisement itself: if a reader in another state responds and the agent calls back to propose the security, that call is an ordinary offer, directed to the reader's state.
Consent to service of process: every applicant for registration irrevocably appoints the Administrator to receive, on the applicant's behalf, legal papers in noncriminal proceedings. Anyone who acts in the state without having filed one is considered to have done so (§ 414(h)).
Why this document? To start a lawsuit, the summons has to be formally delivered to the defendant (service of process). An injured customer in Iowa would have trouble serving papers on a firm based in New York, or on a salesperson who has left the state. Thanks to the consent, it is enough to deliver the papers to the Iowa Administrator, and the firm is considered to have received them. The consent applies only to civil and administrative proceedings, not to criminal prosecutions.
The four professionals
| Firm | Individual | |
|---|---|---|
| Executes transactions | Broker-dealer (BD) | Agent |
| Gives advice for compensation | Investment adviser (IA) | Investment adviser representative (IAR) |
And the issuer: any person who issues or proposes to issue a security. An issuer transaction benefits the issuer (primary market); a non-issuer transaction benefits the issuer neither directly nor indirectly: it takes place between investors (secondary market).
The table reads in both directions. By row: brokerage on one side, advice on the other. By column: the firm, which bears the responsibility and the financial obligations, and the individual, who talks to the customer. The vocabulary rule is strict: an agent and an IAR are always individuals; a broker-dealer and an investment adviser are persons, almost always companies, sometimes an individual doing business in his or her own name (sole proprietor). An individual therefore cannot be "both the broker-dealer and its agent" within the meaning of the Act: an individual who is the firm is a broker-dealer.
In Boston, the company Harbor Securities executes stock market orders for its customers: it is a broker-dealer. Marc, its employee, takes the orders by telephone and receives a share of the commissions: he is an agent. Across the street, Summit Wealth manages portfolios for 1% of assets per year: it is an investment adviser. Léa, who builds the portfolios there and meets with the clients, is an IAR. Summit's receptionist, who schedules the appointments, is none of these.
The company BioNova, which is issuing stock for the first time to finance a laboratory, is an issuer. When Marc sells those new shares on behalf of BioNova, the transaction is an issuer transaction: the money goes to BioNova. Six months later, when one of Marc's customers resells her BioNova shares on the exchange to a stranger, the transaction is a non-issuer transaction: BioNova receives nothing.
The issuer / non-issuer distinction comes up often in chapter 6: several exemptions apply only to non-issuer transactions, because a resale between investors presents less risk than a capital raise by an issuer that has every reason to make its situation look better than it is.
Exclusion, exemption: two words, two effects
This is the distinction that pays off the most on the exam. The two words lead to the same practical result (no registration), but by two different routes. An exclusion operates at the level of the definition: the law says "this is not a broker-dealer," "this is not a security." An exemption operates at the level of the obligation: the law says "this is indeed a security, but we do not require it to be registered." The questions play on the wording: "is not defined as," "is excluded from the definition" on one side; "is exempt from registration," "need not register" on the other.
| Exclusion (exception) | Exemption | |
|---|---|---|
| Meaning | The person or the product does not fall within the definition | The definition applies, but registration is not required |
| Examples | A bank is not a broker-dealer; a fixed annuity is not a security | A municipal security is an exempt security; an adviser with no office in the state and five clients is exempt from registration |
| Antifraud | Can still apply: § 101 covers any person and any security; § 102 covers anyone who is paid to give advice | Always applies |
| Proof | In both cases, the burden of proof is on the person claiming the exclusion or the exemption (§ 402(d)) | |
Three players sell securities to customers in Nevada without being registered there as a broker-dealer.
- A Las Vegas bank buys and sells bonds for its customers. The definition of broker-dealer expressly says that a bank is not one. Exclusion: the question of registration does not even arise.
- A Utah broker-dealer with no office in Nevada has only two insurance companies as customers there. The Act takes it out of the definition as long as it has no place of business in the state and deals only with institutions. Exclusion here too.
- A Utah broker-dealer with no office in Nevada has three resident individuals as customers there. It falls within the definition, and no exemption exists for it. It must register in Nevada.
Now the Las Vegas bank lies to a customer about a bond's rating. It is excluded from the definition of broker-dealer, but USA § 101 covers "any person": the Administrator can act for fraud.
The four-question method
Faced with an exam situation, always ask the same questions, in this order:
- Is it a security? If not, the Act does not apply.
- Does the person fall within a definition (broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser, IAR)? Look for the exclusions.
- Does an exemption from registration apply, to the person, to the security, or to the transaction?
- Is there deception? Antifraud applies whatever the answers to questions 2 and 3.
- The USA is a model state statute; the Administrator enforces it; NASAA writes the model texts and the exam, with no power of its own.
- NSMIA takes away from the states the registration of federal covered securities and federal covered advisers, never antifraud.
- Person: any legal entity. Exam convention: not the minor, the deceased, or the mentally incompetent.
- Security: the list, plus any investment contract (Howey: money, common enterprise, expected profit, efforts of a third party). "Variable" = security; "fixed," commodity, directly owned real estate, IRA = not a security.
- Offer and sale require value. Bonus = sale; gift of assessable stock = sale; stock dividend, pledge, voted merger = not a sale.
- Jurisdiction: the state where the offer originates, the state to which it is directed and where it is received, the state where the acceptance is communicated to the offeror. Newspaper published elsewhere, or with more than 2/3 of its circulation outside the state, radio and television originating elsewhere: no offer.
- Exclusion: outside the definition. Exemption: inside the definition, without registration. Antifraud: always.
Chapter quiz
Broker-Dealers
A person (a firm, or an individual operating in their own name) engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities, for the account of others (broker) or for its own account (dealer). USA § 401(c).
What a broker-dealer is, and why it is registered
The broker-dealer is the firm through which the investor's money flows. It opens the account, receives the funds, executes the orders, holds the securities and sends the statements. The client therefore entrusts it with two things: their assets, and their confidence that the order will be executed honestly. The dangers are of three kinds: the firm can go bankrupt while holding clients' assets, one of its salespeople can steal or deceive, and the firm can push its clients into trades that enrich the firm itself.
Registration answers each of these dangers. It lets the regulator check the background of the firm and its principals before it opens, impose financial requirements on it (a capital cushion), require it to supervise its agents, and take away its right to do business if it abuses that right. An unregistered firm escapes all of this: that is why doing business without registration is a violation in itself, even if no client has lost a dollar.
Broker or dealer: two ways to execute the same order
The same firm can play two roles, and must tell the client which one it played in each trade (its capacity, shown on the confirmation).
A client wants to buy 100 shares of Delta Tools.
- As agent (broker). The firm finds a seller in the market at $50.00 per share. The client pays 100 × $50 = $5,000 to the seller, and a commission of $40 to the firm. Total cost: $5,040. The firm never owned the shares.
- As principal (dealer). The firm already owns these shares in its stock (inventory), while the market quotes them at $50.00. It sells them to the client at $50.40. The $0.40 per share is its markup, or $40 in total. Total cost: $5,040, with no commission.
The cost is the same, but the conflict of interest differs: as principal, the firm is its client's counterparty and earns more the higher the price at which it sells. A firm cannot charge both a markup and a commission on the same trade. When it buys a security from a client for its inventory, the difference is called a markdown. A firm that continuously posts a buying price and a selling price for a security is a market maker.
Two other terms you will come across. An introducing firm handles the client relationship but hands off execution, settlement and safekeeping of the securities to a clearing firm (or carrying firm), which actually holds the assets; the agreement between the two is the clearing arrangement disclosed on Form BD. And a place of business is an office, or any location held out to the public as one (for example, an address on a business card); the written definition comes from the SEC rule on IARs, see Chapter 5.
Who is not a broker-dealer
The definition is broad: any person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities. The Act then removes five categories from it. For each one, ask yourself why: either the person is already regulated elsewhere, or is regulated under another name, or its clients do not need this state's protection.
- Agents (they are individuals who represent the firm).
- Issuers.
- Banks, savings institutions, trust companies.
- A firm with no place of business in the state that deals there exclusively with: the issuers of the securities involved, other BDs, or financial institutions (banks, insurance companies, investment companies, pension funds, other institutional buyers).
- A firm with no place of business in the state, licensed in the state where it has its office, that deals with an existing client whose residence is not in the state: the client on vacation, the "snowbird" (§ 401(c)(4)(B)).
The first three lines are exclusions based on status. The agent is an individual, regulated as an agent. The issuer that sells its own securities is regulated through the registration of those securities. The bank is supervised by the banking regulators. The last two lines are exclusions based on situation, and they are the ones the exam tests. They have two cumulative conditions: no office in the state, and a certain type of client. The idea is that the state has no need to register a distant firm that, within its borders, touches only professionals able to protect themselves, or a visitor who is already protected by their home state.
Granite Brokerage is registered in Vermont, where its only office is located. Must it register in New Hampshire? It all depends on whom it serves there.
- Its only New Hampshire clients are a pension fund and two banks. No office, institutional clients only: it is not a broker-dealer under New Hampshire law. No registration.
- It adds a single resident retail client, Mr. Ortiz. It no longer deals "exclusively" with institutions. It falls within the definition and must register. There is no tolerance threshold: one retail client is enough.
- Ms. Lin, a longtime Vermont client, spends two weeks skiing in New Hampshire and calls from there to sell shares. Granite has no office in the state, and Ms. Lin is an existing client who does not reside there: no registration.
- Ms. Lin moves permanently to New Hampshire. Her residence is now there: the exclusion falls away, and Granite must register to keep serving her.
- Granite opens a small office in Concord (New Hampshire) and sees only insurance companies there. It has a place of business in the state: it registers, even without a single retail client.
The order of the questions to ask is therefore: does the firm have an office in the state? If so, registration, end of analysis. If not: does it have a client in the state who is neither an institution, nor an issuer, nor another broker-dealer, nor an existing client passing through? If so, registration.
- There is no de minimis rule for broker-dealers. The "5 clients" apply only to investment advisers. A single retail client who resides in the state is enough to require registration.
- With an office in the state, the firm registers, even if all of its clients are institutions.
- Selling only exempt securities does not exempt the firm.
The existing-client exclusion covers the client "whose residence is not in this state". If the client becomes a resident of the state, the exclusion no longer applies: the firm must be registered there to keep serving them. Some study guides cite a 30-day period for filing the application; that period does not appear in the 1956 Act as amended by NASAA, the only one tested (the 2002 Act, which is not tested, provides for 45 days). On the exam, remember the rule: client passing through, no registration; client who has become a resident, registration. If a question offers "must register" against "may continue indefinitely", the first is correct. For the individual (the agent), on the other hand, a federal provision sets precise time limits: see Chapter 3.
Two levels of registration
A broker-dealer that does business beyond a single state, which means almost all of them, registers first at the federal level, then in each state where it does business. The two registrations do not duplicate each other. The federal level oversees financial soundness and market rules, through the SEC and through FINRA, which the firm must join. The state oversees who sells to its residents. The same form, Form BD, serves both: the firm files it once in the CRD and checks the states it wants.
| Federal (Exchange Act § 15) | State (USA §§ 201 to 204) | |
|---|---|---|
| Filed with | SEC, plus membership in an SRO (FINRA) and in SIPC | The Administrator of each state where the firm does business |
| Form | Form BD, filed only once in the CRD system, which serves the SEC, the SROs and the states | |
| Effectiveness | By SEC decision: within 45 days of filing, it grants registration or institutes proceedings to deny it (Exchange Act § 15(b)(1)) | Noon of the 30th day after filing, unless a denial order is in effect or a proceeding is pending |
| Withdrawal | Form BDW: effective on the 60th day | Form BDW: effective after 30 days; the Administrator keeps jurisdiction for 1 year |
| Duration | Continuous | Expires on December 31, unless renewed |
Federal registration does not replace state registration. NSMIA only limits what the state may require (see below). A person subject to a statutory disqualification (certain convictions, injunctions, bars) cannot associate with a member without permission.
Lakeshore Securities files its complete application with the Michigan Administrator on March 3.
- If the Administrator does nothing, registration becomes effective at noon on the 30th day after filing: April 2 at noon. Silence means approval.
- On March 20, the firm files an amendment to correct an officer's name. The Administrator may defer effectiveness to noon on the 30th day after that amendment: April 19.
- The Administrator may also, having finished the review, order an earlier effective date; or institute a denial proceeding, which blocks automatic effectiveness.
- The registration obtained in April expires on December 31 of the same year, like all the others. The firm renews it by paying the fee before that date. A firm registered on December 1st also renews as of December 31.
Three years later, Lakeshore goes out of business and files a Form BDW on June 1st. The withdrawal becomes effective 30 days later, unless a proceeding is pending or is instituted within those 30 days. Once the withdrawal is effective, the Administrator keeps for 1 year the power to institute a revocation or suspension proceeding for earlier conduct: withdrawing does not let a firm escape a sanction.
Form BD
- Contents: legal form, direct and indirect owners, control persons, types of business, clearing arrangements, and the criminal, regulatory, civil and financial history of the firm and its control affiliates.
- Any information that has become inaccurate is corrected promptly (without delay, with no number of days set by the Act; the word is explained in Chapter 3) by an amendment (USA § 203(d)); the filing rules set 30 days.
- It contains no client information.
The application to the state
- Application, filing fee, and consent to service of process: it appoints the Administrator as the applicant's agent to receive legal papers in noncriminal proceedings. It is irrevocable, is filed once and does not have to be renewed.
- The Administrator may require publication of a notice of the application in newspapers in the state.
- The Administrator may set an earlier effective date, or defer it to noon of the 30th day after an amendment.
- Registration of the BD automatically registers as agents those of its partners, officers and directors who act as agents.
- Successor firm (reorganization, change of legal form): application filed for the rest of the year, with no fee.
- Unpaid fees: the Administrator may only enter a denial, lifted as soon as the deficiency is corrected.
- Withdrawal under investigation: if a proceeding is pending or is instituted within the 30 days, the withdrawal becomes effective at the time and on the conditions set by the Administrator.
Qualification and examinations
- The Administrator may require an examination that is written, oral or both for any class of applicants, and may waive it.
- Lack of qualification can be held only against the BD itself (if it is an individual) or against its agents, not against a partner or director who merely contributes capital.
- A BD is not automatically qualified as an investment adviser: the Administrator may condition its registration on its not acting as an investment adviser.
Financial requirements and records: the federal limit
Exchange Act § 15 (from NSMIA): for a BD registered with the SEC, a state may not impose any capital, custody, margin, financial responsibility, recordkeeping, bonding or financial reporting requirement that differs from or is in addition to federal requirements.
A few definitions before the list. Net capital is the firm's safety cushion: its liquid assets minus its debts, computed under an SEC formula. It ensures that a firm in trouble can still return clients' assets to them. A surety bond is a guarantee: an insurance company undertakes to compensate clients, up to a set amount, if the firm causes them harm. Custody means holding clients' funds or securities; discretion is the power to decide on trades in their place. These are the two situations in which a professional can most easily do harm, hence the requirement of a guarantee.
After a high-profile bankruptcy, a state's Administrator considers three measures for broker-dealers registered with the SEC: (1) net capital 20% above the federal minimum; (2) retention of all emails for ten years; (3) an unannounced inspection of the records of firms located in the state.
- Measure 1: prohibited. A capital requirement that exceeds the federal level is preempted.
- Measure 2: prohibited. The records and their retention periods are those of SEC Rules 17a-3 and 17a-4; the state can neither add records nor lengthen the periods.
- Measure 3: permitted. Examining existing records is not requiring new ones; the Administrator may do so at any time, without a subpoena.
On the exam, the wording to spot is "exceed", "in addition to" or "differ from" federal requirements: the answer is that the state cannot do it.
- Net capital: at most the federal level.
- Surety bond: may be required of BDs (and agents, and advisers) that have custody or discretion; a deposit of cash or securities is always accepted instead; no bond if net capital exceeds the amount set by the Administrator.
- Records: those of SEC Rules 17a-3 and 17a-4, detailed in Chapter 8. The state cannot require more.
- The Administrator may examine the records at any time, inside or outside the state, without a subpoena, and may cooperate with the SEC and other states to avoid duplication (§ 203(e)).
What the state keeps: registration of the firm and its agents, fees, examinations, antifraud authority and sanctions.
Supervision: FINRA Rule 3110
Each firm must establish and maintain a supervisory system reasonably designed to achieve compliance with the laws and rules. The standard is reasonableness, not the outcome.
Why is supervision on the outline of an agent's exam? Because the regulator cannot stand behind every salesperson. It therefore delegates that oversight to the firm: the firm is the one that must read the emails, review the orders, and spot the account that is turning over too fast. A principal is a manager who has passed a supervisory examination and who signs off on behalf of the firm: the principal approves new accounts, advertising, and options accounts. You will always have a designated principal above you, and many rules in Chapters 8 and 9 boil down to "not without a principal's approval".
- Written supervisory procedures (WSPs), kept current and available in each supervisory office.
- Registered principals designated as responsible; each representative is assigned to a supervisor.
- Office of supervisory jurisdiction (OSJ): an office where order execution, market making, custody of funds and securities, approval of new accounts, review of orders, approval of advertising, or supervision of other offices takes place.
- Internal inspections: each OSJ and each branch office that supervises other locations, at least once a year; non-supervisory branch offices, at least every 3 years; other locations, on a regular periodic schedule. A written report is kept.
- Annual compliance meeting: each representative and principal takes part at least once a year in a compliance interview or meeting.
- Review by a principal of transactions and of incoming and outgoing correspondence, written and electronic.
- Investigation of applicants' good character, qualifications and experience before applying for their registration (including a review of their prior Form U5).
USA § 204(a)(2)(J): failure to reasonably supervise agents is a ground for sanction against the firm, even if it did not commit the misconduct itself. Conversely, the Administrator cannot sanction the firm merely because an agent violated the Act: if it had reasonable procedures and actually applied them, it did not fail in its duty.
An agent churns a retiree's account: forty trades in three months, which bring him $9,000 in commissions. The Administrator sanctions the agent. Can the Administrator also sanction the firm?
- Firm A. It has a procedures manual, but nobody reads the activity reports: the designated principal supervises eighty agents and signs without looking. The warning signs (frequency of orders, commissions relative to the size of the account) were visible. The system was not reasonably applied: failure to supervise, and the firm can be sanctioned.
- Firm B. Its principal reviews the most active accounts every month. The agent had spread the trades across fake accounts to stay under the alert thresholds, and the principal reported the anomaly as soon as it appeared. The firm had reasonable procedures and followed them: the agent's violation is not enough to sanction it.
The typical exam question offers "the firm is automatically liable for any violation by its agents": that is false. It also offers "the firm cannot be sanctioned because it did not commit the violation": that is false as well. The correct answer talks about reasonable supervision.
Selling securities in a bank
NASAA, Model Rules for Sales of Securities at Financial Institutions (1998). They apply to a BD that does business on the premises of a financial institution where retail deposits are taken (networking arrangement). The risk targeted: that the client believes they are buying an insured bank product.
To understand the rule, you need to know the FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation): this federal agency insures bank deposits, so that a depositor loses nothing if their bank fails, up to a ceiling. A client who walks into their bank therefore associates the place with safety. If, next to the teller window, a salesperson offers them a stock fund, they may believe that the fund is as safe as their savings account. All of the rules below serve to break that confusion.
- Location: wherever practical, physically distinct from the deposit-taking area; the BD's name is clearly displayed.
- Written agreement between the BD and the institution, setting out responsibilities and compensation, and giving the BD's supervisors and state authorities access for inspection.
- At or before the opening of the account, oral and written disclosures: the securities are not insured by the FDIC; they are neither deposits nor obligations of the institution, which does not guarantee them; they involve risk, including possible loss of principal. The BD makes reasonable efforts to obtain a written acknowledgment from the client.
- Advertising: the same disclosures, or the short form Not FDIC Insured · No Bank Guarantee · May Lose Value.
- Confirmations and statements clearly indicate that the service is provided by the BD.
- The BD notifies the institution if one of its agents, who is an employee of the institution, is terminated for cause.
A bank employee who is not registered may neither make recommendations nor take orders; federal banking law tolerates only a nominal, fixed fee for referring a client, unrelated to any transaction.
- The broker-dealer's agent meets clients at a desk located between two teller windows, under the bank's sign, with no mention of his firm's name. Noncompliant The space must be distinct from the deposit-taking area wherever practical, and the broker-dealer's name clearly displayed.
- At account opening, the agent says aloud that the securities are not insured by the FDIC and may lose value, without handing over anything in writing. Insufficient The disclosures are oral and written.
- An unregistered teller tells a client: "You should put this check into the growth fund, it pays a lot more." Violation She is recommending a security without being registered. She may only refer the client to the agent.
- The same teller receives $20 for each client she refers to the agent, whether or not the client buys. Tolerated Nominal, fixed compensation, unrelated to any transaction.
- The brochure for a fund sold in the branch carries the legend "Not FDIC Insured · No Bank Guarantee · May Lose Value". Compliant This is the short form allowed in advertising.
Canadian broker-dealers: limited registration
USA § 201-A. A BD resident in Canada, with no office or physical presence in the state, may obtain a limited registration to serve:
- a person from Canada who is temporarily resident and with whom it had a brokerage relationship before the person entered the United States;
- a person from Canada who is a resident of the state, for their self-directed, tax-advantaged Canadian retirement account.
Conditions: application on the form of its home jurisdiction, consent to service of process, registration in good standing in Canada, membership in a Canadian SRO or stock exchange. Effective on the 30th day. It informs its clients that it is not subject to the full requirements of the Act; it is bound only by the antifraud provisions and by this section. Its agents follow the same regime.
The reason for this regime: many Canadians spend the winter or work for a few years in the United States while keeping their broker and their retirement account in Canada (an RRSP, the Canadian equivalent of the IRA). Without this provision, their Canadian broker would violate the state's law with every call. Limited registration lets it keep serving those clients, and only them.
- A retiree from Montreal spends four months in Florida and calls her Toronto broker, which has a limited registration in Florida, to sell shares. Permitted Temporary resident, relationship predating her entry into the United States.
- A Canadian engineer who has settled in Texas wants the same broker to switch the funds in his Canadian retirement account. Permitted Self-directed Canadian retirement account of a resident who came from Canada.
- The engineer's American neighbor, impressed, wants to open an account with this broker. Prohibited Limited registration covers no other client: full registration would be needed.
- The Toronto broker opens a seasonal office in Miami. Prohibited The regime presupposes no office and no physical presence in the state.
- Broker-dealer: a person engaged in the business of effecting transactions in securities, for others (commission) or for itself (markup).
- Excluded: agents, issuers, banks; a firm with no office in the state that serves only institutions, issuers or other BDs there; a firm with no office that serves an existing nonresident client there.
- No de minimis: an office in the state, or a single resident retail client, requires registration.
- SEC and state registration are cumulative. Form BD in the CRD; effective at noon on the 30th day; expires December 31; withdrawal effective after 30 days, jurisdiction for 1 year.
- The state cannot require anything beyond federal requirements for capital, margin, records and reports; it may examine the records at any time.
- Supervision (FINRA 3110): reasonable system, WSPs, principals, annual inspection of OSJs, every 3 years for non-supervisory branch offices, annual compliance meeting. The firm answers for a failure to supervise, not automatically for the agent's misconduct.
- In a bank: distinct location, written agreement, three oral and written disclosures (not FDIC insured, not guaranteed by the bank, risk of loss).
- Canadian BD: limited registration, no office, for the temporary resident who is already a client and for the Canadian retirement account.
Chapter quiz
Agents of Broker-Dealers
This is you. An agent is an individual, other than a broker-dealer, who represents a broker-dealer or an issuer in effecting or attempting to effect purchases or sales of securities. USA § 401(b).
Why register the individual, and not just the firm
The client does not talk to "the firm": they talk to a person, who recommends a security to them, takes their order and sometimes decides for them. That person is the one who can lie, steal or push a sale. The law therefore wants to know every individual who stands between an investor and a security: their criminal and professional background, their competence (hence the exam you are preparing for), and the firm that answers for them. Registration also gives the Administrator a simple lever: taking away the individual's right to work.
A point of vocabulary. State law says agent. FINRA and federal law say registered representative or associated person for the same person; they are also called a stockbroker or account executive. On the exam, these words all refer to the individual salesperson associated with a broker-dealer. And "agent" has a precise legal meaning here: it has nothing to do with the firm acting "as agent" (in an agency capacity) in a transaction.
The definition has three elements: an individual; who represents a broker-dealer or an issuer; in effecting or attempting to effect transactions in securities. The third element is the broadest: the attempt is enough. Someone who solicits without selling anything is already an agent. Neither the job title, nor the method of compensation, nor the hours worked matter: what matters is the function.
Agent of a broker-dealer
For someone who represents a broker-dealer, the rule has no nuance: if they take part in the sale, they are an agent, whatever security is sold and whoever the buyer is. The only caveat: if the firm itself is not a broker-dealer in the state (no office in the state, and institutional clients only or an existing client passing through, see Chapter 2), its representative is not an agent there, since the law defines the agent as someone who represents "a broker-dealer or issuer" (USA § 401(b)).
- Anyone who sells for a BD is an agent, even if the securities or the transactions are exempt.
- Clerical and administrative staff are not agents, unless they take orders, solicit accounts, pass on recommendations or receive compensation tied to sales.
- A partner, officer or director is an agent only if they otherwise fall within the definition: one who sells or solicits is, one who merely sits on the board is not.
- It is unlawful for a BD or an issuer to employ an unregistered agent (§ 201(b)).
- There is no de minimis for agents.
- An assistant types letters, files records and answers the phone to say that the agent will call back. Not an agent Purely clerical functions.
- The same assistant, on a day when the agent is out, writes down a client's buy order and enters it. Agent She took an order: she is effecting a transaction. Without registration, she violates the law, and so does the firm.
- A salaried employee, with no commission at all, calls prospects to offer to open an account for them. Agent Soliciting is attempting to effect transactions; the absence of a commission changes nothing.
- A director of the firm sits on the board four times a year and has no contact with clients. Not an agent The title of director is not enough.
- The president of the firm personally calls three large clients to recommend an offering to them. Agent He is selling. His registration, however, is automatic with the firm's (Chapter 2).
- An agent of a broker-dealer registered in the state sells only U.S. Treasury bonds, to banks only. Agent Exempt security, institutional buyer: it does not matter, he represents a broker-dealer of this state.
- The representative of a firm that has no office in the state and deals there only with banks and insurance companies. Not an agent in this state His firm is not a broker-dealer there (USA § 401(c)): he therefore represents neither a broker-dealer nor an issuer within the meaning of this state's law.
- A summer intern hands out brochures at a trade show and collects the contact details of interested visitors, in exchange for a bonus per account opened. Agent Compensation tied to sales and solicitation of accounts.
Agent of an issuer
A company can sell its own securities without going through a broker-dealer: its employees approach investors directly. These employees "represent an issuer in effecting transactions": in principle they are agents, and must register. But the law has decided that, in certain low-risk situations, this registration is unnecessary. It then removes the individual from the definition (this is an exclusion, not an exemption).
An individual who represents an issuer is not an agent when effecting transactions:
- in one of these five exempt securities: securities of the U.S. government, the states and municipalities; securities of Canada and of recognized foreign governments; securities of banks, savings institutions and trust companies; exempt commercial paper; investment contracts of employee benefit plans;
- in an exempt transaction (§ 402(b)), that is, a sale excused from registration because of its circumstances (list in Chapter 6);
- in certain federal covered securities: sales to qualified purchasers (very wealthy or institutional investors, a category defined at the federal level) and private placements under Rule 506 (Chapter 6);
- with employees, partners or directors of the issuer, if no commission or other remuneration is paid for the solicitation.
As soon as you read "receives a commission" in a question about an issuer's employee who sells to employees, the answer leans toward "must register as an agent".
The list of exempt securities that take an issuer's representative out of the definition is shorter than the full list of exempt securities. The securities of an insurance company, a public utility or a nonprofit organization are exempt from registration, but the person who sells them to the public for the issuer is still an agent.
In each case, the individual is an employee of the issuer and sells their employer's securities. No broker-dealer is involved.
- Ana works in the finance department of the city of Tucson and places the city's bonds with residents. The security is a municipal bond, one of the five exempt securities on the short list. Ana is not an agent.
- Ben is an employee of an insurance company and sells that company's shares to the public. These shares are indeed exempt securities, but they are not on the short list. The sale to the public is not an exempt transaction. Ben is an agent and must register.
- Chloé, in a manufacturer's human resources department, invites employees to enroll in the employee stock purchase plan. She receives her usual salary, nothing more. Transactions with the issuer's employees, with no remuneration for the solicitation: she is not an agent.
- David does the same job as Chloé, but receives a bonus of $25 per employee who enrolls. The bonus is remuneration tied to the solicitation: David is an agent.
And what if Ben sold the same shares only to banks and pension funds? A sale to an institutional investor is an exempt transaction: he would fall outside the definition. The reasoning always follows this order: which security (short list)? which transaction (exempt)? which buyers (employees, no commission)? If none of the three doors opens, it is an agent.
| Represents a broker-dealer | Represents an issuer | |
|---|---|---|
| Principle | Always an agent if they sell or solicit | Agent, except in the listed cases |
| Sells an exempt security | Agent | Not an agent if the security is one of the five on the short list; agent otherwise |
| Sells in an exempt transaction | Agent | Not an agent |
| Sells to the issuer's employees | Agent | Not an agent if they receive no commission; agent if they receive one |
| Who violates the law by employing them unregistered | The broker-dealer | The issuer |
Registration: Form U4
You do not register on your own. The firm files Form U4 for you in the CRD, after checking your background, and pays the fees of each state requested. The form is a statement made under your own responsibility: you answer a series of questions about your history, and you commit to keeping it up to date. The logic is that of all securities law: you are not forbidden to have a past, you are forbidden to hide it. The content of Form U4 feeds BrokerCheck, which any client can look up.
- Form U4 (Uniform Application for Securities Industry Registration or Transfer), filed by the firm in the CRD system. Content: identity, 5 years of residential history, 10 years of employment history, exams, states requested, and the disclosure questions: criminal charges and convictions, regulatory actions, injunctions and civil litigation, customer complaints and arbitrations, terminations for cause, bankruptcies, unpaid judgments and liens. Fingerprints.
- Look-back windows of the disclosure questions, a classic trap: any felony, conviction or mere charge, with no time limit ("Have you ever…"), as well as misdemeanors involving investments or fraud; bankruptcies and compromises with creditors within the last 10 years; judgments and liens as long as they are unpaid. Do not confuse this with the ground for denial in USA § 204, limited to convictions within the last 10 years: a 15-year-old felony is disclosed on Form U4, but is no longer by itself a statutory ground for denial.
- Updating: any information that has become inaccurate is corrected promptly (USA § 203(d)); the filing rules set 30 days, shortened to 10 days for an event that results in a statutory disqualification.
- A false statement on Form U4 is a ground for denial or revocation (§ 204(a)(2)(A)) and a violation in itself (§ 404).
- Form U5 at the end of the relationship: filed by the firm within 30 days, with a copy to the individual.
- Effective at noon on the 30th day, expiration on December 31, consent to service of process, fees: same rules as for the BD.
- The Administrator may require a bond from an agent who has custody of or discretion over client funds or securities.
Three terms from American criminal law come up in these questions. A felony is a serious crime, generally punishable by more than one year in prison. A misdemeanor is a less serious offense. Being charged (formally accused) is not the same as being convicted (found guilty): Form U4 asks about both for felonies. A lien is a creditor's (often the tax authority's) claim on a debtor's property for as long as the debt remains unpaid.
Julien is hired as an agent. In his past: (a) a felony conviction, for assault and battery, 14 years ago; (b) a misdemeanor for disturbing the peace 3 years ago; (c) a personal bankruptcy 6 years ago; (d) a $4,000 tax lien, paid off last year.
- On Form U4. (a) Yes: every felony is disclosed, with no time limit, even if unrelated to finance. (b) No: a misdemeanor is disclosed only if it involves investments, fraud or similar conduct. (c) Yes: bankruptcy within the last 10 years. (d) No: the lien has been paid; only judgments and liens still unpaid are disclosed.
- Before the Administrator. The felony is more than 10 years old: it is no longer, by itself, a statutory ground for denial (USA § 204). The misdemeanor for disturbing the peace has no connection to securities: not a ground either.
- If Julien hides the felony. The false statement itself becomes the problem: an application false on a material point, a ground for denial or revocation, and a standalone violation of the law.
Two years later, a client brings an arbitration against Julien over a sale he considers abusive. This is a reportable event: Form U4 must be amended within 30 days. If Julien were convicted of theft, an event that results in a statutory disqualification, the deadline would drop to 10 days.
At the end of the relationship, whatever the cause (resignation, termination, retirement), the firm files a Form U5 that states the reason for the departure. That reason follows the agent: the next firm will read it before hiring them. This is why the agent receives a copy of it, and may dispute an entry they consider inaccurate.
Exams
- In practice: the SIE, a FINRA representative exam (Series 7 or Series 6), and the Series 63 (or the Series 66).
- Passing the Series 63 does not give you the right to do business: registration must be effective in each state concerned.
- Validity: under the NASAA model rule, the exam must have been passed within the 2 years preceding the application, unless the individual has been registered in a state during the last 2 years or participates in a continuing qualification program.
- An agent supervised by a registered BD does not have to show the same qualifications as a BD; lack of experience alone does not justify a denial.
Each exam has its purpose. The SIE (Securities Industry Essentials) tests general knowledge and can be taken without a firm. The Series 7 (all products) and the Series 6 (funds and variable annuities) are FINRA's representative exams: they cover products and federal rules, and require sponsorship by a firm. The Series 63 covers state law. The Series 65 is the IAR exam, and the Series 66 combines the Series 63 and 65 for those who already hold the Series 7.
Inès passes the Series 7 in April and the Series 63 on May 10. Her firm, registered in Georgia and Florida, files her Form U4 on May 12, requesting Georgia.
- On May 11, may Inès call a prospect in Atlanta? No. The exam is a condition of registration, not registration itself.
- On May 20, the Georgia Administrator makes the registration effective. Inès may solicit in Georgia.
- On May 25, a Florida prospect calls her after seeing an advertisement. May she recommend a security to him? No: she is not registered in Florida, even though her firm is. The firm must request Florida on her Form U4 and wait for it to become effective.
- If Inès leaves the business in June and wants to come back three years later, her Series 63 is no longer valid: more than 2 years without registration. She retakes it.
Where must the agent be registered?
In every state where they effect or attempt to effect transactions: the state they call from, and the state to which their offer is directed and where it is received (§ 414). Calling a prospect in a state where you are not registered is a violation, even without a sale.
Exchange Act § 15(i)(3)-(4), "de minimis transactions by associated persons" (originally numbered § 15(h)(2)-(3); that is the number cited in § 401(b)(2) of the amended 1956 USA, which excludes such a representative from the definition of agent). A state may not prohibit an agent from effecting a transaction for an existing client who is in a state where the agent is not registered, if: the agent is registered with FINRA and with at least one state and is not ineligible; the agent is registered in a state where the customer resided, or was present for at least 30 consecutive days, during the prior year; the agent's firm is registered in the state in question; the client has had an account with the firm for 30 days and has been assigned to this agent for 14 days.
On the exam, the simple version is usually enough: an agent may serve an existing client passing through a state where the agent is not registered; the agent may not solicit new clients there.
If the client stays in the other state for 30 consecutive days or more, or moves their residence there, the agent must file an application for registration in that state within 10 business days after the later of the transaction or the discovery of the stay or the move; the pending application then covers the agent for no more than 60 days.
The principle is strict because it protects each state's jurisdiction over what happens within its borders. The federal exception exists for a practical reason: clients travel. Without it, an agent would have to refuse the sell order of a ten-year client because she is calling from a hotel in a state where he is not registered. But the exception is narrow: it covers a client the agent already has, never prospecting.
Tom is an agent in Denver, registered in Colorado only. His firm is registered in Colorado and Arizona. Ms. Reyes, a Colorado resident, has been his client for two years.
- In February, she spends three weeks in Phoenix and calls Tom to buy shares. Tom is registered with FINRA and with one state; his firm is registered in Arizona; the account is more than 30 days old and has been assigned to him for more than 14 days; the stay lasts less than 30 days. Tom may execute the order.
- During this stay, Ms. Reyes's neighbor in Phoenix, an Arizona resident, asks Tom to open an account for her. She is not an existing client: Tom may not offer her anything before he is registered in Arizona.
- In May, Ms. Reyes moves permanently to Phoenix. Tom learns of it on May 6. To keep serving her, he must file an application for registration in Arizona within 10 business days. Once the application is filed, he may execute her orders while it is under review, for 60 days at most, or until a denial.
- If Tom's firm were not registered in Arizona, the exception would not apply at all: that is one of its conditions.
- An agent registered in Oregon sends a prospecting e-mail to fifty residents of Idaho, where he is not registered. No one replies. Violation The offer was directed into Idaho and received there: he attempted to effect transactions there.
- An agent registered in State A and State B, from his office in A, calls a client who resides in B. Permitted He is registered at both ends of the offer's path.
- An agent registered only in the state where he has his office sells only exempt securities to residents of the neighboring state. Violation The exemption of the security does not excuse an agent of a broker-dealer from registering.
- An agent on vacation in a state where he is not registered calls, from the beach, a client who resides in his own state to offer him a security. Both states have jurisdiction The offer originates in the vacation state and is directed into the client's state: both Administrators have jurisdiction. Under the letter of § 414, the agent should therefore be registered in both. This is the trap of where the offer originates.
Association with the firm
An agent does not exist on their own. Their registration is always that of "the agent of such-and-such firm", because the firm is the one that supervises them and answers for them. The license is therefore not a diploma you take with you: it lives only as long as the link with a registered firm exists.
- The agent's registration is not effective during any period when they are not associated with a registered BD or an issuer. With no firm, or if the firm loses its registration, there is no longer an active license.
- Dual association with two unaffiliated BDs: only if the Administrator permits it by rule or order.
- Registration is personal: it cannot be transferred to another individual.
Sofia, an agent at Alder Securities, resigns on Friday, March 14 to join Birch Capital on Monday the 17th.
- From March 14 to 17, she is not associated with any firm. Her registration is not effective: she may neither take an order nor call a client, even "to help out".
- Who notifies the Administrator? Three notifications, promptly: Sofia, Alder (which also files Form U5 within 30 days) and Birch (which files a new Form U4).
- Her former clients remain clients of Alder until they themselves request the transfer of their accounts. Their personal information is protected by Regulation S-P (Chapter 8): Sofia may not leave with the files without authorization.
- May she remain associated with both firms during the transition? Only if the Administrator permits it, by rule or order.
Another situation: Sofia's firm has its own registration revoked. All of its agents lose the effectiveness of their registration at the same time, without having done anything wrong. They must associate with another registered firm to work again.
Who notifies the Administrator when an agent joins or leaves?
| Situation | Who notifies (promptly) |
|---|---|
| The agent joins, leaves or is terminated by a BD or an issuer | The agent and the BD or the issuer |
| The agent moves from BD A to BD B | All three: the agent, A and B |
| For comparison: IAR of a state-registered adviser | The firm alone |
| For comparison: IAR of a federal covered adviser | The IAR alone |
For the agent, the rule is "everyone notifies": the Administrator does not rely on any single party to know at all times who works for whom. The word promptly recurs throughout the law: it means without delay, without the text setting a number of days. When a question offers "promptly" against an invented numerical deadline, "promptly" is generally the right answer for a notification to the Administrator.
Accounts at another broker-dealer: FINRA Rule 3210
A firm monitors the trading of its own employees: an agent who buys for himself just before recommending the security to his clients, or who trades on confidential information, shows up in the records. But if the agent opens a personal account at a competitor, the employer no longer sees anything. Rule 3210 closes that door: no account elsewhere unless the employer knows about it and can receive the statements.
- Before opening an account that permits securities transactions at another member or another financial institution, the associated person obtains the prior written consent of their employer.
- They notify the executing firm in writing of their association with a member.
- Upon the employer's written request, the executing firm sends duplicate confirmations and statements.
- Account opened before hiring: the employer's written consent within 30 calendar days.
- The associated person is presumed to have an interest in the accounts of their spouse, their dependent children and relatives whose accounts they control.
- An agent opens an account at an online broker and informs his employer by e-mail the following week. Violation The employer's written consent must come before the account is opened.
- A newly hired agent has had an account at another broker for five years. She obtains her new firm's written consent three weeks after joining and informs the other broker. Compliant Account predating the hiring: 30 calendar days.
- An agent's wife opens an account in her name alone at another broker; the agent believes it does not concern him. Violation He is presumed to have an interest in his spouse's account: the rule applies.
- An agent opens a checking account at a bank, with no ability to trade securities in it. Outside the scope of the rule Only accounts that permit securities transactions are covered.
- The employer asks the online broker in writing for duplicate statements of its agent's account; the broker refuses, citing confidentiality. Not compliant The executing firm must send them upon the employer's written request.
Payments to unregistered persons: FINRA Rule 2040
If a firm could pay a commission to anyone, registration would be pointless: it would be enough to have unregistered recruiters sell and pay them by results. The rule therefore starts from compensation: being paid based on transactions is the sign that you take part in the sale, and anyone who takes part in the sale must be registered. Conversely, a fixed payment with no connection to a transaction (rent, accounting fees) does not raise this problem.
- No commission or other transaction-based compensation may be paid to a person who should be registered and is not. A "finder's fee" proportional to transactions, paid to an accountant or a friend, is prohibited.
- The retired representative exception: continuing commissions on their former accounts, under a bona fide contract signed while they were registered, provided they no longer solicit, open accounts or service those accounts.
- The exception for an unregistered foreign finder who refers foreign clients, subject to disclosure conditions.
- On the state side (NASAA, 1983): sharing commissions with a person who is not a registered agent of the same BD or of a BD under common control is a dishonest practice. Sharing between two agents of the same firm is permitted.
- An agent passes 10% of his commission to the CPA who referred the client to him. The accountant is not registered. Prohibited Transaction-based compensation paid to an unregistered person.
- Two agents of the same firm jointly service a large client and split the commission equally. Permitted Both are registered agents of the same broker-dealer.
- An agent shares a commission with a friend, a registered agent of a competing broker-dealer unaffiliated with his own. Prohibited Under the 1983 NASAA list, sharing is permitted only with an agent of the same broker-dealer or of a broker-dealer under common control.
- A representative retires. A contract signed before her departure provides that she will receive, for five years, a share of the commissions on her former accounts; she no longer contacts any client. Permitted The retired representative exception.
- The same retiree, running into a former client, advises him to buy a fund and tells her former firm so that the order is placed. Prohibited She is soliciting: she falls outside the exception and acts as an unregistered agent.
- A firm pays $500 per month to a professional association to rent a booth, regardless of the number of accounts opened. Permitted Fixed payment, with no connection to transactions.
Agents of Canadian broker-dealers
The agent of a Canadian BD with limited registration (Chapter 2) obtains a limited registration himself: a form from his home jurisdiction, consent to service of process, registration in good standing in Canada. He may serve only the clients his firm is permitted to serve, and remains subject to the antifraud provisions.
- Agent: an individual who represents a BD or an issuer in effecting or attempting to effect transactions. The function counts, not the title or the method of pay.
- For a BD: always an agent if they sell, solicit or take orders, even in exempt securities. No de minimis.
- For an issuer: not an agent if they sell one of the five securities on the short list, in an exempt transaction, certain federal covered securities, or to employees without a commission.
- Form U4 filed by the firm: 5 years of residence, 10 years of employment; felony with no time limit; bankruptcies 10 years; unpaid judgments and liens. Update within 30 days (10 if disqualification). Form U5 within 30 days.
- Passing the exam is not being registered. Registration in every state where the offer originates and where it is received.
- Existing client passing through: permitted (account open 30 days, assigned for 14 days, firm registered in the state). Stay of 30 days or a move: application within 10 business days.
- Without a firm, registration is not effective. Change of firm: the agent and both firms notify.
- Account elsewhere (FINRA 3210): employer's prior written consent; 30 calendar days for a preexisting account; spouse included.
- No transaction-based compensation for an unregistered person (FINRA 2040), except a retiree under contract and a foreign finder.
Chapter quiz
Investment Advisers
Three scored questions, but the rules for advisers come back in the communication and ethics chapters. Above all, an agent must know where their job ends and where paid advice begins.
The advisory business, and why it has its own rules
The investment adviser does not sell securities: it sells its judgment. The client pays it to say what to buy and what to sell, or to manage the portfolio on the client's behalf. This relationship is more intimate than a brokerage one. The client relies on the adviser, often for years, and frequently gives it the power to decide alone. The danger is no longer the one trade too many: it is self-interested advice, advice the adviser gives because it gains something the client does not know about.
The law answers with the fiduciary duty. A fiduciary is someone who manages another person's affairs and who must, for that reason, put the other person's interest ahead of their own, in all circumstances, and disclose everything that could compromise their judgment. It is the highest standard of conduct in American law. Almost all the rules in this chapter flow from it: the written contract, the brochure, the ban on borrowing from clients, the restrictions on custody.
Advisers are paid in several ways: an annual percentage of assets under management (AUM), for example 1% per year; an hourly rate; a flat fee for a financial plan; a subscription to a newsletter. What, in principle, they may not do is be paid out of the client's gains (Chapter 8, performance fees), because that would push them to take too much risk with other people's money.
The ABC test
As with the broker-dealer, the law defines the adviser by its activity, not by its title. Three criteria, all required: if just one is missing, the person is not an investment adviser.
- Advice: gives advice about securities (direct advice, analyses, reports, publications).
- Business: is in the business of doing so, or holds itself out as such.
- Compensation: is paid for it, in any form.
All three criteria must be met (USA § 401(f)). The definition expressly includes financial planners and any person who, as part of other financial services, advises on securities for compensation: a retirement consultant, a sports agent who selects investments for a fee.
Details on each letter. Advice: the advice must concern securities. Advising someone to buy gold, a building or traditional life insurance does not count. But advising someone to sell stocks in order to buy gold does concern securities. General advice on the allocation between stocks and bonds is also enough. Business: the person does it on a regular basis, or holds themselves out to the public as an adviser (business card, website, advertising). A single piece of advice given to a friend does not make a business. Compensation: any economic benefit, whether it comes from the client or from a third party: a fee, a commission on the recommended product, a subscription. Free advice, with no benefit of any kind in return, does not make someone an adviser.
- A basketball player's agent negotiates his contract and, for an annual fee, selects funds and stocks for him. Investment adviser Advice on securities, regular business, compensation: A, B and C.
- The same agent negotiates the contract and sends the player to an adviser, without giving any advice himself. Not an adviser A is missing.
- An economist is paid to tell her clients whether gold and oil will go up. Not an adviser The advice does not concern securities.
- A retiree passionate about the stock market advises his neighbors for free. Not an adviser C is missing.
- A financial planner prepares, for $1,500, a plan that recommends, among other things, an allocation between stock funds and bond funds. Investment adviser Financial planners are expressly included.
- A company publishes a weekly stock market newsletter, the same one for all its subscribers. Excluded Publisher of a publication of general circulation, with no advice tailored to each reader.
- The same company offers, for an extra charge, to answer each subscriber's questions about their own portfolio. Investment adviser The advice becomes personalized: the publisher exclusion falls away.
Who is excluded from the definition
These persons may meet all three criteria and yet not be investment advisers under state law. The reason is the same as for the broker-dealer: they are already regulated in another capacity, or their advice is only incidental to another profession. Each exclusion has a condition, and the loss of that condition is what the exam tests.
- LATE: Lawyers, Accountants, Teachers, Engineers, if the advice is solely incidental to their profession. One who holds themselves out as an investment adviser or bills separately for that advice loses the exclusion.
- Broker-dealers and their agents, if the advice is incidental to the brokerage business and without special compensation. A wrap fee is special compensation: the BD becomes an IA for that program.
- Publishers of bona fide newspapers, newsletters and financial publications, with no advice based on each client's situation.
- Banks, savings institutions, trust companies.
- IARs (they are individuals associated with the firm).
- Federal covered advisers.
Excluded from the definition does not mean free of all rules: the antifraud provisions of USA § 102 reach "any person" who is paid to advise on securities.
Ms. Hill, an estate lawyer, tells a client who is inheriting a portfolio: "You should sell these shares to pay the estate taxes." She bills her usual legal fees. The advice concerns securities and she is paid, but it is solely incidental to her profession: she is excluded. The following year, she adds "Wealth Management Advice" to her office sign and charges $300 an hour to build portfolios. She holds herself out as an adviser and bills separately for that advice: the exclusion falls away, and she is an investment adviser.
An agent of a broker-dealer recommends stocks to his clients and earns a commission on each order. The advice is incidental to brokerage, and he is paid only through the commission: no special compensation, he is excluded. His firm then launches a program in which the client pays 1.5% of assets per year for advice and execution combined. That fee specifically pays for the advice: for that program, the firm is an investment adviser, and the agent who gives advice in it must also be an IAR.
In both cases, the question to ask is: does the client pay for the advice itself? If so, the exclusion no longer holds.
SEC or state? (Advisers Act § 203A, Rule 203A-1)
Unlike the broker-dealer, which registers at both levels, the adviser registers at only one: either with the SEC or with the states. NSMIA made this split in 1996, so that the SEC would focus on large firms and the states would oversee small ones, which are closer to their residents. The criterion is size, measured by assets under management. A 2010 federal law (Dodd-Frank) raised the threshold to $100M, which created the intermediate category of mid-size advisers.
| Assets under management (AUM) | Category | Registration |
|---|---|---|
| < $25M | Small adviser | State |
| $25M – $100M | Mid-size adviser | State, unless the adviser would not be subject to registration and examination there (it then goes to the SEC) |
| $100M – $110M | Buffer | Optional: SEC permitted, not required |
| ≥ $110M | Large adviser | SEC required |
- An adviser already registered with the SEC has to go back to the state only if its assets fall below $90M.
- Also federal covered, regardless of AUM: advisers to registered investment companies; pension consultants advising plans of at least $200M; advisers required to register in 15 states or more; internet advisers; newly formed advisers that expect to reach the threshold within 120 days.
- A federal covered adviser does not register with the state: it makes a notice filing (a copy of the documents filed with the SEC) and pays fees. The state keeps its antifraud authority over it, but may impose neither recordkeeping nor financial requirements on it.
Cedar Advisory, in Portland, manages portfolios for individuals. Follow its assets under management from one year to the next.
- $18M. Small adviser: registration with the state. It is prohibited from registering with the SEC.
- $60M. Mid-size adviser: still the state (its state registers and examines it).
- $104M. Buffer zone: Cedar may move to the SEC, but is not required to. It stays with the state.
- $115M. The $110M threshold is crossed: SEC registration is required. Cedar becomes a federal covered adviser. In its state, it no longer registers: it makes a notice filing.
- $96M after a market decline. Cedar is below $100M, but above $90M: it stays with the SEC.
- $85M. Below $90M: it must leave the SEC and return to state registration.
The buffer (entry possible at $100M, required at $110M, exit at $90M) keeps a firm near the threshold from switching regulators with every market move. On the exam, first check whether the firm is already with the SEC or not: the answer for "$95M" is not the same in the two cases.
Notice filing or registration
The notice filing is what the state has left when federal law has taken registration away from it: the right to be informed and to be paid. The firm does not have to ask for permission; it reports its presence.
| Registration (state adviser) | Notice filing (federal covered adviser) | |
|---|---|---|
| Nature | An application for authorization, which the Administrator may deny | Information only: a copy of what is filed with the SEC, fees, consent to service of process |
| Financial and recordkeeping requirements | Those of the state (net worth, bond, NASAA recordkeeping rules) | None from the state |
| Denial, suspension, revocation of registration | Yes | Not applicable: the state has registered nothing |
| Antifraud | The state may investigate and take action for fraud in both cases | |
| The firm's IARs | Registered with the state | Registered with the state where they have a place of business (Chapter 5) |
The same term is used for securities: the issuer of a federal covered security also makes a notice filing (Chapter 6). In both cases, remember that it is not a registration and that it does not weaken the antifraud provisions.
Certain advisers do not have to register with the SEC: advisers to private funds managing less than $150M in the United States and advisers to venture capital funds (they still file reports: exempt reporting advisers), foreign advisers with no significant U.S. presence, and those whose only clients are insurance companies. Family offices are excluded from the definition.
State registration and the de minimis exemption
USA § 201(c). An IA (or an IAR) with no place of business in the state does not have to register there if its only clients in the state are institutions (investment companies, other advisers, BDs, banks, insurance companies, employee benefit plans with at least $1M in assets, governments), or if it has had no more than 5 clients other than institutions during the preceding 12 months.
This is the only numerical tolerance in the entire law for professionals, and it applies only to advice. Why advisers and not broker-dealers? An adviser follows its clients over time; when a few of them move to another state, it would be disproportionate to require full registration for them. The two conditions are cumulative: no office in the state, and a small number of clients. An office in the state requires registration from the first client.
Prairie Advisers is registered in Kansas, where its only office is located. It has no office in Missouri.
- Over the last twelve months, it has had four individual clients who reside in Missouri. No office, five clients at most: no registration in Missouri.
- It adds a bank and a pension fund there. Institutional clients do not count toward the five: still no registration.
- A fifth Missouri individual signs on. Five: the limit is "no more than five", and it is not exceeded.
- A sixth comes along. Prairie must be registered in Missouri before taking him on as a client.
- Variation: Prairie rents an office in Kansas City (Missouri) and has only one client there. It has a place of business in the state: registration, regardless of the number of clients.
The period is rolling: you look at the preceding twelve months, not the calendar year. And the same calculation applies to the IAR individually.
| No office in the state | Broker-dealer | Agent | Investment adviser and IAR |
|---|---|---|---|
| Institutional clients only | Outside the definition | Not an agent in this state: the firm is not a broker-dealer there (USA § 401(b) and (c)) | Exempt |
| A few individual residents | Registration from the first one | Registration from the first one | Exempt up to 5 in 12 months |
The Form ADV is to the adviser what Form BD is to the broker-dealer, with one difference: part of it is written for the client. Part 1 is a check-the-box questionnaire for regulators. Part 2 is written in plain English and delivered to the client: it is the brochure, which tells the client, before signing, what the firm does, what it costs, what conflicts of interest it has and whether it has been disciplined.
- Form ADV: Part 1, data for regulators; Part 2A, the firm brochure (services, fees, conflicts, disciplinary history); Part 2B, the brochure supplement on the individuals who advise the client; Part 3, Form CRS, intended for retail investors. Withdrawal: ADV-W.
- Annual updating amendment within 90 days after the end of the fiscal year; material changes: promptly.
- Effective at noon on the 30th day, expiration on December 31, consent to service of process, successor firm with no fee: as for BDs.
- Registration of the IA automatically constitutes registration as IARs of its partners, officers and directors who perform IAR functions.
Financial requirements (NASAA Model Rule 202(d)-1)
Net worth is the firm's net value: what it owns minus what it owes. The requirement rises with the power the adviser has over the client's money. One that only gives advice, without touching the funds or deciding alone, has no minimum. One that decides alone (discretion) can cause losses: $10,000. One that holds the funds (custody) can lose or misappropriate them: $35,000. And one that is paid long in advance must at least not be insolvent, since the client has extended it credit.
- Minimum net worth: $35,000 with custody; $10,000 with discretion but no custody. A surety bond can make up a deficiency.
- Fees of more than $500 per client collected 6 months or more in advance: positive net worth at all times, and a balance sheet provided in the brochure.
- Net worth deficiency: notice to the Administrator by the close of business on the next business day, then a financial report on the business day after that.
- An IA that meets the financial requirements of the state where it has its principal office cannot be made to meet more by another state.
- Adviser A gives recommendations that the client executes on their own at their broker, and bills quarterly in arrears. No custody, no discretion, no long prepayment: no minimum net worth.
- Adviser B manages accounts on a discretionary basis; the assets are held at a broker and B cannot withdraw them. Discretion without custody: $10,000.
- Adviser C has custody of its clients' funds. Its balance sheet shows $52,000 in assets and $24,000 in liabilities: net worth of 52,000 − 24,000 = $28,000, or $7,000 below the $35,000 minimum. C must notify the Administrator by the close of business on the next business day, then file a financial report on the business day after that. A surety bond can cover the deficiency.
Another case: an adviser charges $1,200 per client, payable in advance for the year. More than $500, six months or more in advance: positive net worth at all times, and a balance sheet attached to the brochure. If it charged $300 per quarter in advance, the rule would not apply: the prepayment exceeds neither $500 nor six months.
Records (NASAA Model Rule 203(a)-2)
- Retention for 5 years from the end of the fiscal year of the last entry, the first 2 years in the principal office.
- Organizational documents: until 3 years after termination of the business.
- Content: journals and general ledger, order memoranda, bank statements, written communications received and sent relating to advice, a list of discretionary accounts, powers of attorney, contracts, advertisements, personal transactions of associated persons, brochures delivered, security and privacy policies.
IA: 5 years, 2 of them in the principal office. BD: 6 years for blotters, ledgers and account records, 3 years for communications, orders and confirmations, the first 2 years in an easily accessible place (details in Chapter 8). This is one of the most frequent comparisons.
Custody (NASAA Model Rule 102(e)(1)-1)
Custody: holding, directly or indirectly, client funds or securities, or having the authority to obtain possession of them. It exists in three cases: possession; any arrangement giving the authority to withdraw funds or securities on instruction to the custodian (including direct deduction of fees and a general power of attorney); any capacity that gives legal ownership or access (general partner of a limited partnership, trustee).
Custody is the most sensitive point of the business: an adviser who can get its hands on the client's money can also make it disappear. The law does not forbid it, but surrounds it with four protections that all serve the same purpose, having someone other than the adviser check that the money is really there: an independent custodian (the qualified custodian, a bank or a broker-dealer) that actually holds the assets; statements sent to the client by that custodian, not by the adviser; a certified public accountant (CPA) who comes to count without warning; and notice to the Administrator. Note that custody is defined by authority, not by physical possession: an adviser authorized to deduct its fees from the account has custody, even if it has never seen a single bill.
- No custody if funds or securities received inadvertently are returned to the sender within 3 business days, nor if a client's check made out to a third party is forwarded to that third party within 3 business days.
- With custody: written notice to the Administrator on Form ADV; a qualified custodian (bank, BD) holding the assets in separate accounts; written notice to the client about the custodian; statements at least quarterly sent by the custodian; an annual surprise examination by an independent CPA.
- Custody arising solely from fee deduction: the client's written authorization, an invoice sent to the custodian and an itemized invoice to the client with each deduction, notice to the Administrator. Under these conditions, neither a surprise examination nor the $35,000 net worth is required.
- USA § 102(e): custody is unlawful if the Administrator prohibits it by rule, or, absent a rule, if the adviser has not notified the Administrator of it.
- A client mistakenly sends stock certificates to his adviser. The adviser returns them two business days later. No custody Inadvertent receipt, returned to the sender within 3 business days.
- Same situation, but the adviser deposits the certificates with the client's broker "as a favor". Custody The rule requires return to the sender, not forwarding the securities elsewhere.
- A client hands the adviser a check made out to his broker. The adviser forwards it to the broker the next day. No custody A check made out to a third party, forwarded within 3 business days.
- A client hands over a check made out to the adviser itself, "to invest". Custody The adviser has possession of the funds.
- The contract authorizes the adviser to deduct its quarterly fees from the account held at a broker. Custody Authority to withdraw funds. Lighter regime if: written authorization, an invoice to the custodian and to the client with each deduction, notice to the Administrator.
- The adviser is the general partner of a fund organized as a limited partnership in which its clients invest. Custody Its capacity gives it access to the assets.
- The adviser only has the authority to place buy and sell orders in the client's account. No custody This is discretion: it cannot withdraw anything.
Advisory contract (USA § 102(c), NASAA Model Rule 502(c))
The client chooses an adviser for its personal competence and integrity. The contract protects that choice: it must state clearly what is provided and at what price, and it cannot be transferred to someone else behind the client's back. The word assignment is broader than a formal transfer: if the owners sell control of the firm, the client in fact ends up being advised by other people, and the law treats that sale as an assignment of the contract.
- In writing, stating the services, the term, the fees and how they are calculated, the portion of prepaid fees refunded upon termination, and whether or not there is discretionary authority.
- No assignment (transfer, including by transfer of a controlling block of interest) without the client's consent.
- Partnership: notice to clients of any change in partners within a reasonable time. The departure or admission of minority partners is not an assignment.
- No compensation based on capital gains, except for qualified clients (figures in Chapter 8). No clause waiving the protections of the law: a hedge clause that purports to release the adviser from all liability or to make the client waive their rights is void (USA § 410(i)) and does not protect the adviser.
- An advisory firm is 70% owned by its founder, who sells all her shares to a financial group. Control changes hands: this is an assignment. Each contract can continue with the acquired firm only with the client's consent.
- A firm organized as a partnership has eight equal partners. One of them retires. A minority partner leaving is not an assignment, but the firm must inform its clients within a reasonable time.
- The same firm sees five of its eight partners leave at once and be replaced. The majority changes: this is a change of control, and therefore an assignment.
- An IAR leaves the firm and her clients' files are handed to a colleague at the same firm. The contract is with the firm, which has not changed: no assignment.
Unethical practices (NASAA Model Rule 102(a)(4)-1)
The adviser and the IAR are fiduciaries: they act first in the client's interest. The model rule lists, among other things:
- recommending without reasonable grounds to believe that the advice is suitable for the client;
- exercising discretion without written authorization obtained within 10 business days after the first transaction placed on oral authorization (discretion limited to price and timing does not require it);
- inducing excessive trading; placing an order without authorization, or on a third party's instructions without the client's written authorization;
- borrowing from a client, unless the client is a BD, an affiliate of the adviser or a financial institution in the business of lending; lending to a client, unless the adviser is a lending institution or the client is an affiliate;
- misrepresenting its qualifications, services or fees; presenting a report prepared by a third party as its own;
- charging an unreasonable fee;
- failing to disclose in writing, before any advice is given, a material conflict of interest (compensation from third parties, commissions earned on the transactions advised);
- guaranteeing a result; publishing misleading advertising;
- disclosing a client's identity or affairs without consent or a legal requirement;
- failing to comply with the custody rule; entering into a contract that does not comply with the rules;
- failing to have written procedures to prevent the misuse of material nonpublic information;
- accessing a client's account using the client's own login credentials;
- failing to establish or enforce a required policy; failing to pay an arbitration award or a fine.
The list looks long, but it applies the same principle throughout: the adviser must never be in a position to gain something at the client's expense without the client knowing it and accepting it. Borrowing from the client makes the client a creditor and distorts the advice. Earning a commission on the recommended product creates an incentive to recommend it. The disclosure must be written and made before the advice, so that the client can take it into account.
- An IAR who is also an agent of a broker-dealer recommends to an advisory client a fund on which she will earn a commission, without telling him. Unethical A material conflict not disclosed in writing before the advice.
- The same IAR first gives the client a written document stating that she will earn a commission on this fund, then makes her recommendation. Permitted Prior written disclosure; the advice must still be suitable for the client.
- An adviser borrows $20,000 from a client, a retired physician, with a promissory note and interest. Unethical She is neither a broker-dealer, nor an affiliate, nor an institution in the business of lending. The written note and the interest change nothing.
- An adviser obtains a mortgage loan from a bank that is also its client. Permitted A financial institution in the business of lending.
- A client authorizes his adviser by phone, on Monday, June 2, to manage his account on a discretionary basis. The adviser places a first order the same day and receives the written authorization on June 12. Permitted The written authorization arrives within 10 business days after the first transaction.
- An adviser sends its clients, on its own letterhead and without naming the author, a study bought from a research firm. Unethical It presents a report prepared by a third party as its own. It could have used the report by citing the source.
- To place an order faster, an IAR logs into the client's account at the broker with the username and password the client gave her. Unethical Even with the client's consent. She must use her own access.
- An adviser tells a friend that a well-known athlete has just entrusted his fortune to him. Unethical Disclosure of a client's identity without consent.
Information security (NASAA, 2019)
Investment Adviser Information Security and Privacy Rule. A state-registered adviser must:
- establish, implement and maintain written physical security and cybersecurity policies, appropriate to its size, that protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information;
- cover five functions: identify, protect, detect, respond, recover;
- review these policies at least once a year;
- deliver its privacy policy to the client at the start of the relationship, then annually, and promptly after any change.
Wrap fee programs
A single fee, as a percentage of assets and not based on transactions, covers advice, execution and custody. It is not a performance fee. The sponsor is an investment adviser (the wrap fee is special compensation for advice, even when the sponsor is a broker-dealer) and delivers a specific brochure (Form ADV Part 2A, Appendix 1) describing the fees and stating that the program may cost more than buying the services separately. A wrap fee is poorly suited to an inactive account: the client would be paying for transactions they do not make (reverse churning).
A program charges 1.5% of assets per year, all-inclusive. Two clients each have $200,000: the wrap fee costs them 200,000 × 1.5% = $3,000 per year.
- Active client. He places about a hundred orders a year. At a $40 commission per order in a regular account, he would pay 100 × 40 = $4,000, not counting advice. The wrap fee costs him less and removes the agent's incentive to multiply orders.
- Passive client. He buys and holds: two orders a year, or 2 × 40 = $80 in commissions in a regular account. In the program, he pays $3,000 for a service he hardly uses. Recommending it to this client raises a suitability problem: this is reverse churning.
It is the exact opposite of churning (Chapter 9): in a commission account, the danger is too many trades; in a fee-based account, it is too little service for the price paid.
- Investment adviser = Advice about securities + Business + Compensation. Financial planners included.
- Excluded: lawyers, accountants, teachers, engineers (solely incidental advice); BDs and agents without special compensation; publishers of general publications; banks; IARs; federal covered advisers. The § 102 antifraud provisions still reach them.
- SEC or state: less than $100M, state; $100M to $110M, optional; $110M and more, SEC; back to the state below $90M. Never both.
- Federal covered adviser: notice filing and fees; the state keeps antifraud authority and registers the IARs.
- De minimis: no office in the state and no more than 5 individual clients in 12 months. For advisers and IARs only.
- Net worth: $35,000 with custody, $10,000 with discretion, positive if more than $500 is prepaid 6 months or more in advance.
- Records: 5 years, 2 of them in the principal office.
- Custody: possession, authority to withdraw, or a capacity giving access. Qualified custodian, quarterly statements, annual surprise examination. Returned within 3 business days: no custody.
- Written contract; no assignment without consent; oral discretion tolerated for 10 business days; conflicts disclosed in writing before the advice.
Chapter quiz
Investment Adviser Representatives
The IAR is to the investment adviser what the agent is to the broker-dealer: the individual who does the work. The Series 63 alone does not qualify you to be one.
Why an agent exam covers IARs
You are taking the Series 63 to become an agent, not an IAR. NASAA nevertheless puts three questions on this topic, and its reason is written in the exam outline: brokerage and advice sit so close together that an agent must know where the limits of an agent registration lie. In a firm that has both businesses, a small step is enough to move from one profession to the other: offering a client a fee-based managed account, receiving a share of those fees, holding yourself out as a "wealth management adviser." From that point on, the agent is performing the function of an IAR, and if the agent is not registered as one, the agent is violating the law.
The structure is the same as in brokerage: a firm (the investment adviser) and individuals who act for it (the IARs). The rules resemble those for agents, with a few deliberate differences that the exam exploits. Read this chapter with Chapter 3 in mind, and note every difference.
Who is an IAR
The definition works like the definition of an agent: it starts from the function. An IAR is anyone who, on behalf of an adviser, is involved closely or remotely in the advice itself or in selling it.
USA § 401(g). Any partner, officer, director, or individual employed by or associated with an IA, who:
- makes recommendations or gives advice regarding securities,
- manages accounts or portfolios,
- determines which advice or recommendations should be given,
- solicits, offers, or negotiates the sale of advisory services (the "solicitor"),
- supervises persons who do any of these things.
Purely clerical staff are not IARs. An agent of a BD who receives a share of advisory fees for recommending portfolios must also be an IAR: the two registrations are held together.
Let us go back over the five functions. The first two are obvious: the person who advises the client and the person who manages the client's portfolio. The third covers people the client never sees: the analyst or investment committee member who decides what the firm will recommend. The fourth is the biggest trap: the solicitor, paid to bring clients to the firm, is an IAR even though the solicitor gives no advice, because the solicitor sells the advisory service. The fifth covers the supervisor of all of these. By contrast, a person who prepares invoices, files records, mails statements, or schedules appointments performs none of these functions.
- A portfolio manager selects the securities for the firm's portfolios and has never met a client. IAR She manages accounts and determines the advice given.
- A former banker receives $500 for each client he introduces to the adviser. He never talks about investments. IAR He solicits the sale of advisory services.
- An accountant employed by the adviser prepares fee invoices and performance reports from the data in the system. Not an IAR Clerical task.
- The chief compliance officer supervises the IARs and approves their recommendations. IAR She supervises persons who give advice.
- A receptionist answers a worried client: "If I were you, I would keep your stock, the market is going to come back." IAR function performed without registration He has just given advice on securities on behalf of the firm.
- A person practices alone, in his or her own name, as a registered investment adviser. Both adviser and IAR The firm's registration covers the individual who runs it and gives the advice. Difference from brokerage: the definition of agent expressly excludes the broker-dealer itself (a sole proprietor in brokerage is a broker-dealer, not an agent); the definition of IAR has no such exclusion.
Agent and IAR side by side
| Agent | IAR | |
|---|---|---|
| Represents | A broker-dealer or an issuer | An investment adviser |
| Does | Securities transactions | Advice for compensation, or the sale of that advice |
| Paid by | Commissions | Fees |
| Standard of conduct | Best interest at each recommendation (Reg BI); honest practices (NASAA 1983) | Fiduciary duty, on an ongoing basis |
| Exam | Series 63 (or 66), together with a FINRA exam | Series 65, or Series 66 with Series 7 |
| De minimis | None | No office and no more than 5 clients in 12 months |
| Who gives notice of hiring and termination | The agent and the firm | The firm (state-registered adviser) or the IAR (federal covered) |
| Discretion | Prior written authorization | Oral authorization allowed for 10 business days |
| Registered by | The state, on Form U4; effective at noon on the 30th day; expires December 31; no effect outside a firm | |
Where the IAR registers
The answer depends on the firm, and this is the favorite subject of questions on this chapter. NSMIA took the registration of large advisory firms away from the states, but left them the registration of individuals: a state thus keeps control over the people who meet with its residents. To keep an IAR of a large national firm from having to register in fifty states because he or she has clients everywhere, federal law limited this power to the states where the IAR has an office. For the IAR of a state-registered adviser, there is nothing of the kind: the ordinary rule applies, with the de minimis exemption.
| Employer | IAR registration |
|---|---|
| IA registered with the state | In every state where the IAR does business, unless de minimis (no place of business and no more than 5 clients in 12 months) |
| Federal covered adviser | Only in the states where the IAR has a place of business |
Even when the firm is regulated by the SEC, the individual registers with the state: the SEC does not register IARs. A place of business is an office where the IAR regularly provides services, solicits, or meets with clients, or any other location held out to the public as such (SEC Rule 203A-3).
Maya is an IAR of Titan Asset Management, registered with the SEC (federal covered). She works at the Chicago (Illinois) office. She has 40 clients in Illinois, 25 in Wisconsin, and 12 in Indiana, whom she serves by phone and by videoconference.
- Titan does not register in any state: it makes a notice filing where one is required.
- Maya has a place of business in Illinois only. She registers as an IAR in Illinois, and nowhere else. Her 25 Wisconsin clients change nothing: for the IAR of a federal covered adviser, you do not count clients, you look for the office.
- The following winter, Maya rents an office in Milwaukee (Wisconsin) where she meets clients two days a week and which she lists on her business card. That is a place of business: she must also register in Wisconsin.
Noah is an IAR of Maple Advisers, registered with the state of Illinois (state-registered adviser). He also works in Chicago and has 3 retail clients in Wisconsin and 8 in Indiana.
- Illinois: his office is there, so he registers there.
- Wisconsin: no office, 3 clients in twelve months. De minimis: no registration.
- Indiana: no office, but 8 clients. More than five: he registers in Indiana (and so does Maple).
When you face a question of this type, read the first line first: "federal covered adviser" or "state-registered adviser"? Everything else depends on it.
And if you are asked who registers the IAR of a giant adviser, the answer is never the SEC. The SEC registers firms. Individuals in the advisory business are always under the states.
Beginning and end of the relationship: who gives notice?
The Administrator must know at all times which firm each IAR works for. The law assigns the duty to notify to whoever has a registration relationship with the Administrator. The state-registered adviser is registered with the Administrator: it is the one that gives notice. The federal covered adviser is not registered with the state; the only one who is registered is the IAR: so it is up to the IAR to give notice.
| Type of firm | Who notifies the Administrator (promptly) |
|---|---|
| State-registered IA | The firm |
| Federal covered adviser | The IAR himself or herself |
Do not confuse this with agents, where the agent and the BD both give notice.
- Noah leaves Maple Advisers (state-registered adviser) on June 1st. Maple notifies the Administrator, promptly. Noah has nothing to file himself. As of June 1st, his IAR registration is no longer in effect, until he joins another adviser.
- Maya leaves Titan (federal covered). It is Maya who notifies the Administrator of Illinois, where she is registered.
- Sofia, an agent, leaves her broker-dealer for another one (Chapter 3). The agent and both firms give notice.
A way to remember it: for the agent, everyone; for the IAR, only one, the one the state knows.
Formalities and exams
The procedure is the same as for the agent, with a few differences in detail. The IAR also files a Form U4, in the IARD system. The IAR's registration is tied to a firm and does not exist without it. What changes is the exam: the Series 63 tests state law from the brokerage point of view, whereas the work of an IAR also requires knowledge of analysis, investment strategy, and fiduciary duty, which the Series 65 and Series 66 test.
- Form U4, effective at noon on the 30th day, expires December 31, consent to service of process.
- The registration is not in effect unless the IAR is employed by a registered IA (or associated with a federal covered adviser).
- Exam (NASAA Model Rule 202(a)-2): Series 65, or Series 66 with the Series 7, passed within the 2 years before the application.
- Waiver for holders in good standing of certain designations: CFP, ChFC, PFS, CFA, and CIC in the 2000 text (the rule was readopted in 2022; the version amended in 2024 lists CIMA instead). The CPA credential alone does not provide a waiver.
- An IAR supervised by a registered IA does not have to meet the same qualifications as an IA.
- Continuing education: the 2020 NASAA model rule (IAR Continuing Education) requires 12 credits per year (6 in ethics and professional responsibility, 6 in products and practice) in the states that have adopted it, a growing number. An IAR who does not complete them cannot renew the registration.
- The ethics rules for advisers (Chapter 4) apply to the IAR personally: no borrowing from a client, no guarantee of results, disclosure of conflicts.
The abbreviations in the waiver list are private professional designations, earned after demanding exams: CFP (Certified Financial Planner), ChFC (Chartered Financial Consultant), PFS (Personal Financial Specialist, available only to CPAs), CFA (Chartered Financial Analyst), CIC (Chartered Investment Counselor). The Administrator considers that the holder has already demonstrated the required knowledge. The CPA (Certified Public Accountant) is a licensed accountant: the credential shows competence in accounting, not in investments, which is why there is no waiver without the PFS. The waiver covers the exam only: the holder must still register.
The agent who drifts into advice
This is the scenario the exam likes best, because it concerns you directly. An agent of a broker-dealer gives advice every day: recommending a security is part of the job. As long as that advice is incidental to the brokerage business and is paid for only by the commission on the order, the agent remains an agent. The agent changes category when the client pays for the advice.
Clara is an agent at a broker-dealer that is also registered as an investment adviser. She has passed the SIE, the Series 7, and the Series 63.
- She recommends that a client buy 200 shares of a company and receives a commission. Agent activity. Nothing to add.
- Her firm launches a managed account: the client pays 1.2% of assets per year, and Clara selects the funds in the portfolio. The firm pays her a share of that fee. Clara is advising and managing for a fee: that is an IAR function.
- Is she allowed to do this with her current exams? No. The Series 63 qualifies her for agent registration. She needs the Series 65, or the Series 66 since she already has the Series 7, and then an IAR registration in effect in the state.
- Once she is an IAR, she wears two hats. When she recommends a security in a commission account, she acts as an agent, under Reg BI. When she manages the fee-based account, she acts as an IAR, with an ongoing fiduciary duty. She must tell the client in which capacity she is acting.
- An IAR promises a client that her portfolio "will not fall by more than 5%, or I will make up the difference." Unethical Guarantee of results.
- An IAR of a state-registered adviser receives from a client, by phone, authority to manage the client's account and places orders for a month without having anything signed. Unethical Written authorization is due within 10 business days after the first transaction.
- An IAR recommends to her clients a fund managed by a sister company of her employer and tells them so in writing before giving the advice. Permitted Conflict disclosed in writing, provided the advice is suitable for the client.
- An IAR whose firm has just lost its registration continues to serve his clients "in the meantime." Violation His registration is not in effect unless he is associated with a registered adviser.
- An IAR of a federal covered adviser lies to a client about the past performance of a portfolio. Can the state act, even though the firm is regulated by the SEC? Yes The state's antifraud provision covers any person compensated for giving advice, and the IAR is registered with the state.
- IAR: an individual who, for an adviser, gives advice, manages, determines the advice, solicits or sells advisory services, or supervises those who do. Clerical staff are not IARs.
- The SEC never registers an IAR: only the states do.
- IAR of a state-registered adviser: registration in every state, unless de minimis (no office, no more than 5 clients in 12 months).
- IAR of a federal covered adviser: registration only where the IAR has a place of business, regardless of the number of clients elsewhere.
- Notice: the firm for a state-registered adviser; the IAR for a federal covered adviser. (Agents: the agent and the firm.)
- Exam: Series 65, or Series 66 with Series 7. Waiver: CFP, ChFC, PFS, CFA, CIC. Not the CPA alone.
- Form U4, noon on the 30th day, December 31, no effect outside a firm: same as the agent.
- An agent paid through advisory fees is performing an IAR function and must register as one.
Chapter quiz
Securities and Issuers
Basic rule (USA § 301): to be lawfully offered or sold in a state, a security must be registered, exempt (the security or the transaction), or federal covered.
Why register a security
The seller of a security always knows more than the buyer. The issuer knows its financial statements, its debts, its pending lawsuits, what the founders paid for their own shares. The buyer sees only a brochure. Registration corrects this imbalance: before selling to the public, the issuer files with the regulator a set of documents describing the business, the security, and the use of the money, and the issuer is answerable if it lied. The regulator does not say that the investment is good. It checks that the required information is there, and the investor decides.
Before every sale, the agent must therefore be able to answer one question: through which door did this security lawfully enter the state? There are three, and one is enough.
- The security is registered in the state, by one of the three methods below.
- An exemption applies: either to the security itself (exempt security) or to this sale (exempt transaction).
- The security is federal covered: federal law bars the state from requiring its registration.
If no door is open, the sale is unlawful and the buyer can demand that it be undone (Chapter 7), even if the security has gone up and even if no one lied. Selling an unregistered, non-exempt security is one of the two major "no-fault" violations of the Act, along with selling without being registered yourself.
The vocabulary of an offering
- Registration statement: the complete set of documents filed with the regulator (the SEC at the federal level, the Administrator at the state level).
- Prospectus: the part of that filing intended for the investor. It describes the issuer, its financial statements, its risks, the security offered, and the price. It is the document the buyer must receive.
- Effective date: the moment the registration takes effect. Before that, no sales can be made.
- Underwriter: the investment bank (a broker-dealer) that organizes the offering and places the securities with investors. The process is called an underwriting.
- Public offering: an offering open to any investor. Private placement: an offering limited to a small number of selected investors, without advertising.
- Interstate offering: an offering made in several states, which falls under the SEC. Intrastate offering: an offering limited to the residents of a single state by a company of that state, which escapes federal registration and falls under the state alone.
The three methods of registration
The three methods differ in only one respect: how much of the work the SEC has already done. If the issuer has filed with the SEC, the state relies on that filing and the state registration follows the federal timetable (filing, coordination). If there is no federal filing, the state does the entire review itself and alone decides the date (qualification).
| Method | For whom | When effective |
|---|---|---|
| Filing (§ 302, formerly "notification") | Established issuer that has filed a registration statement with the SEC and meets seasoning and size criteria | At the same time as the federal registration, if the documents have been on file for at least 5 business days |
| Coordination (§ 303) | Any offering for which a registration statement has been filed with the SEC (Securities Act of 1933) for the same offering | At the moment the federal registration becomes effective, subject to three conditions |
| Qualification (§ 304) | Any security; the only route for an intrastate offering with no SEC filing | When the Administrator so orders |
Filing (§ 302)
- Main criteria: issuer in business in the United States for at least 36 months; class of securities registered under the Exchange Act and held by 500 or more persons; net worth of $4M (or $2M with earnings in 2 of the last 3 fiscal years); at least 4 market makers; offering price of at least $5 per share; underwriting commissions of no more than 10%; no recent payment default.
- Also available to funds (open-end investment companies, that is, mutual funds, and unit investment trusts, funds with a fixed portfolio) that have already registered their securities in the state within the last 24 months.
- Light filing: proof of eligibility, description of the issuer and the security, latest federal prospectus.
Coordination (§ 303)
- Filing: copies of the latest prospectus filed with the SEC and, on request, the articles of incorporation, underwriting agreements, other federal documents; an undertaking to forward amendments. The Administrator can require only what is filed with the SEC.
- Automatically effective at the moment of federal effectiveness if: (1) no stop order is in effect and no proceeding is pending; (2) the registration statement has been on file with the Administrator for at least 10 days; (3) the maximum and minimum prices and the maximum underwriting commissions have been on file for 2 full business days. The Administrator may waive conditions (2) and (3).
- Afterward, the registrant promptly notifies the Administrator of the date and time of federal effectiveness and the content of the price amendment, and files a post-effective amendment. Failing that: a retroactive stop order is possible, without prior notice.
Qualification (§ 304)
- Full filing: issuer and subsidiaries, officers and directors and their compensation, 10% shareholders, promoters, capitalization, kind and amount of securities, price, underwriters' compensation, use of proceeds, outstanding options, material contracts, litigation, sales literature, specimen of the security, legal opinion, balance sheet less than 4 months old, and income statements for 3 years.
- The Administrator may require that a prospectus be delivered to each person to whom an offer is made, before the sale.
- NovaTech is preparing its initial public offering in twelve states. It files its registration statement with the SEC on March 1st and the same statement with the Administrator of Oregon on March 10. This is a coordination. On Monday, April 13, it files with the Administrator the price range and the maximum commissions. The SEC declares the registration effective on Thursday, April 16, at 10 a.m. The three conditions are met: no stop order; statement on file for more than 10 days; prices on file for two full business days (Tuesday the 14th and Wednesday the 15th). The Oregon registration becomes effective on April 16 at 10 a.m., at the same instant. NovaTech then informs the Administrator, promptly.
- A Vermont brewery wants to raise $800,000 from Vermont residents only. Intrastate offering: no SEC filing, so neither filing nor coordination is possible. That leaves qualification: a full filing, effective only when the Vermont Administrator so orders. There is no automatic waiting period and no federal date to follow.
- A manufacturer in business for twenty years, whose shares are already widely held, issues new shares with a registration statement filed with the SEC. It meets the seasoning and size criteria: it can use filing, a light set of documents, effective at the same time as the federal registration once the documents have been on file for 5 business days.
For the exam: "no SEC filing" or "intrastate" points to qualification; "effective concurrently with federal registration" points to coordination (or filing if the question stresses how long the issuer has been established); "when the Administrator so orders" points to qualification.
Common rules (§ 305)
- Who files: the issuer, any other person on whose behalf the offering is made (non-issuer distribution), or a registered BD.
- Filing fee; consent to service of process; statement of the amount offered in the state and of the other states where the offering is filed.
- Duration: 1 year from the effective date, or longer as long as the distribution is not completed. During that time, all outstanding securities of the same class are deemed registered for non-issuer transactions.
- No withdrawal for 1 year if securities of the same class are outstanding.
- Periodic reports may be required: no more often than quarterly.
- In a registration by qualification or coordination, the Administrator may require that securities issued to promoters at a price well below the public price or for something other than cash (cheap stock) be placed in escrow (escrow), and that the proceeds be impounded (impound) until a minimum amount is raised. The Administrator may also prescribe the form of the subscription agreement.
Two of these rules call for an explanation. The one-year duration must not be confused with December 31: registrations of persons all expire at the end of the calendar year, whereas the registration of a security lasts one year from its own effective date. A security registered on March 1st remains registered until the following March 1st, and beyond that if the distribution is not finished.
Escrow and impound protect the first subscribers of a young company. Suppose the founders issued themselves their shares at $0.50 each, and the public pays $5.00. If the founders could resell immediately, they would pocket ten times their stake at the expense of the new shareholders: the Administrator may require that these low-priced shares be held in escrow by a third party for a period of time. Likewise, if the project needs $2M to get started and the offering raises only $300,000, the money would be spent for nothing: the Administrator may require that the funds remain impounded until the minimum is reached, and returned to the subscribers if it is not.
The Administrator may deny, suspend, or revoke the registration of a security if doing so is in the public interest and there is a statutory ground: incomplete or misleading registration statement; willful violation of the Act by the registrant, the issuer, or an underwriter; stop order or injunction from another authority; issuer's business unlawful where it is carried on; offering that has worked or would tend to work a fraud on purchasers; unreasonable underwriters' compensation, promoters' profits, or options; security not eligible for filing; coordination undertaking not complied with; unpaid fee (denial only). Procedure: notice, hearing, written findings; a summary order is possible, with a hearing within 15 days of a written request. For a fact the Administrator already knew when the registration became effective, the Administrator must act within 30 days.
Do not confuse the orders. The stop order is aimed at a security: it denies, suspends, or revokes its registration, and no one can sell it in the state any longer. The cease and desist order (Chapter 7) is aimed at a person and orders that person to stop a course of conduct. The sanctions of § 204 (deny, suspend, revoke) are aimed at the registration of a securities professional. Note also what the Administrator cannot do: deny a security solely because the Administrator considers the investment risky. One of the grounds on the list is needed, plus the public interest.
- The prospectus omits a lawsuit that could cost the issuer half its assets. Grounds for a stop order Registration statement incomplete in a material respect.
- The underwriters will receive 22% of the offering proceeds. Grounds for a stop order Unreasonable underwriting compensation.
- The Administrator believes the issuer's industry, restaurants, is too risky for retail investors. Not grounds The riskiness of an industry is not on the list; disclosure is enough.
- The issuer has not paid the filing fee. Denial only The order is vacated as soon as the fee is paid.
- The issuer operates casinos in a state where they are prohibited. Grounds for a stop order Business unlawful where it is carried on.
Federal covered securities and notice filing
This is the third door, opened by NSMIA in 1996. Certain categories of securities are already closely supervised at the federal level, or sold to buyers who do not need the state's protection. Requiring fifty state registrations on top of that was expensive and added nothing. Congress therefore "covered" these securities: the state can no longer require their registration.
NSMIA (Securities Act § 18) takes away the state's power to require registration of:
- securities listed on the NYSE, Nasdaq, and other national exchanges, and securities of the same issuer of equal or senior rank;
- securities of registered investment companies (mutual funds, exchange-traded funds or ETFs, unit investment trusts or UITs);
- sales to qualified purchasers: very wealthy or institutional buyers, a category that federal law directs the SEC to define. Not to be confused with the accredited investor of Regulation D or with the qualified client for performance fees;
- private placements under Rule 506 of Regulation D, and certain other offerings exempt at the federal level.
By contrast, a stock that trades only over the counter (OTC, for example on the OTC Pink market, formerly the Pink Sheets) is not federal covered on that ground: unless an exemption applies, it must be registered in the state.
Notice filing (USA § 307): this is not a registration. The Administrator may require the documents filed with the SEC, a consent to service of process, and a fee. For Rule 506: notice on Form D no later than 15 days after the first sale in the state. If the filing is not made, the Administrator may issue a stop order suspending the offering (except for listed securities). For listed securities (and securities of the same issuer of equal or senior rank), the state can require neither a filing nor a fee: in practice, notice filing concerns funds and Rule 506 (Securities Act § 18(c)(2)(D)). Antifraud authority remains intact.
| Registration (security not covered) | Notice filing (federal covered security) | |
|---|---|---|
| What the issuer does | It applies for registration, by filing, coordination, or qualification | It informs the state: copy of the documents filed with the SEC, consent to service of process, fee |
| Administrator's power over the merits | May deny, suspend, or revoke on a ground in § 306; may require escrow, impound, reports | No review of the merits; may only suspend the offering if the filing or the fee is missing |
| Examples | Stock of an unlisted local company; intrastate offering | Shares of a mutual fund; private placement under Rule 506 |
| Antifraud | Fully applies in both cases | |
One morning, in Santa Fe (New Mexico), an agent sells three securities to retail clients.
- Stock of a company listed on Nasdaq. Federal covered. The Administrator cannot require its registration.
- Shares of a mutual fund. Federal covered, since the fund is a registered investment company. The fund had to make a notice filing in New Mexico and pay a fee. If it did not, the Administrator may suspend the offering of those shares in the state.
- Stock of an unlisted local company, which she actively recommends. Neither federal covered nor an exempt security; and since she recommends it, the order is not "unsolicited." Unless another transaction exemption applies (the manual exemption, for example), this stock must be registered in New Mexico; otherwise the sale is unlawful.
In all three cases, if she lies about the security, the Administrator can act for fraud. And in all three cases, she herself must be registered as an agent in New Mexico.
Exempt securities (§ 402(a))
Second door. Certain securities do not have to be registered because their issuer already offers safeguards: it is a government, which levies taxes; or an entity supervised by another regulator (bank, insurer, rate-regulated public utility); or an entity whose purpose is not profit. The exemption attaches to the security: it follows the security in all its sales, primary or secondary, whoever the seller is.
The exemption belongs to the security itself, whoever the seller is and whatever the transaction:
- US government and municipal securities (states, political subdivisions, agencies);
- Canada, Canadian provinces, and their subdivisions; other foreign governments with diplomatic relations, at the national level only;
- banks, savings institutions, trust companies; savings and loan associations; credit unions. The exemption covers the bank itself: the securities of its parent, the bank holding company, are not exempt on this ground;
- insurance companies (their stocks and bonds, not variable annuities);
- railroads, common carriers, public utilities whose rates or securities issuances are regulated;
- securities listed on the major exchanges, and securities of the same issuer of equal or senior rank (in practice, they are now federal covered);
- nonprofit organizations (religious, educational, charitable, fraternal, chambers of commerce);
- commercial paper: maturity of 9 months (270 days) max, denominations of $50,000 minimum, rated in the top 3 categories;
- investment contracts issued in connection with employee benefit plans (with written notice to the Administrator 30 days before the plan begins);
- cooperatives, where the state so provides.
A few terms from the list. A savings and loan association and a credit union are savings and lending institutions, similar to banks and supervised like them. A common carrier is a public transportation company (railroad, transport company) and a public utility is a provider of essential services (electricity, gas, water): their rates and their securities issuances are controlled by an authority. Commercial paper is very short-term debt issued by a large corporation to finance its day-to-day operations. The three conditions (maturity, denomination, rating) ensure that it is a high-quality product sold to large buyers, not a risky borrowing placed with retail investors.
- A bond issued by a Texas school district. Exempt Political subdivision of a state.
- A bond of the province of Ontario. Exempt Canadian province.
- A bond of the city of Lyon. Not exempt For a country other than Canada, only the national government is covered.
- The common stock of a life insurance company. Exempt Security issued by an insurer.
- A variable annuity issued by the same company. Not exempt Expressly carved out of the insurance company exemption.
- A 180-day note of a large corporation, in denominations of $100,000, rated in the second-highest category. Exempt Commercial paper: 9 months at most, $50,000 at least, top three ratings.
- A 12-month note of the same corporation. Not exempt Maturity longer than 9 months.
- The stock of a holding company that owns a bank. Not exempt The exemption covers securities issued by the bank itself, not by its parent company.
Exempt transactions (§ 402(b))
Here, there is nothing special about the security: it is ordinary stock of some company, which would have to be registered to be sold to the public. But the circumstances of this particular sale make registration unnecessary. The exemptions can be sorted into four families, which helps you remember them:
- The buyer can fend for itself: institutions, underwriters.
- The seller is not in the business of selling securities: isolated sale between individuals, forced sale by an executor, a sheriff, a trustee in bankruptcy, a pledgee.
- The initiative comes from the buyer: unsolicited order.
- The offering is too limited to be "public": private placement, pre-organization certificates, offering to existing security holders.
The exemption belongs to the way the sale is made. The security itself remains non-exempt: another sale of the same security may require registration.
- Isolated non-issuer transactions, whether or not effected through a BD;
- Manual exemption: non-issuer transaction by a registered agent of a registered BD, in a security that has been outstanding in the hands of the public for at least 90 days, whose issuer is an operating business (neither a blank check company, a company with no specific plan formed to merge with a target not yet identified, nor a shell company, a shell with no real operations) and whose financial information appears in a recognized securities manual or on EDGAR, the SEC's public database where issuers file their documents;
- Unsolicited non-issuer orders effected by a registered BD (the Administrator may require the client to acknowledge in writing that the order was unsolicited);
- transactions between the issuer and underwriters, or among underwriters;
- bonds secured by a mortgage or deed of trust, if the entire issue is offered and sold as a unit;
- sales by fiduciaries: executor, administrator, sheriff, marshal, receiver, trustee in bankruptcy, guardian, conservator;
- sale by a bona fide pledgee (the creditor liquidating pledged collateral);
- sales to institutional investors (banks, insurers, investment companies, pension funds, BDs);
- private placement: no more than 10 offers to non-institutional persons in the state in 12 months, purchase for investment, no commission for soliciting non-institutional buyers;
- pre-organization certificates: 10 subscribers max, no commission, no payment;
- offers to existing security holders (including holders of convertible securities and of warrants exercisable within 90 days of their issuance), with no commission other than a standby commission, or after a notice that the Administrator does not disallow within 5 business days;
- offer, but not sale, of a security for which registration statements have been filed with both the state and the SEC, with no stop order in effect.
More detail on the most heavily tested ones. A transaction is isolated when it is occasional: an individual who sells his or her stock in an unlisted company once to a neighbor. As soon as the sales are repeated, they are no longer isolated. An order is unsolicited when the idea comes from the client, with no recommendation from the agent: the client is the one who calls and names the security. The exemption requires a registered broker-dealer, and since everyone has an interest in claiming after the fact that the order was unsolicited, the Administrator may require a written acknowledgment from the client. The pledgee is the secured creditor: the bank that received securities as collateral and sells them because the borrower has stopped paying; the exemption requires a bona fide pledge, not an arrangement designed to evade registration. A pre-organization certificate is a commitment to subscribe for the shares of a company that does not yet exist.
A Colorado company wants to raise money without registering its stock, relying on the USA's private placement exemption. Over twelve months, in Colorado, it presents its project to 8 individuals, 3 banks, and 2 insurance companies. Two individuals and one bank buy.
- You count offers, not sales. 8 offers to non-institutional persons: the limit of 10 is respected. The 5 institutions do not count.
- Are the buyers purchasing for investment? The seller must reasonably believe so: no immediate resale planned.
- Is a commission paid for soliciting the individuals? None may be paid.
If the three conditions are met, the transaction is exempt. The following month, the company contacts 3 more Colorado individuals: that makes 11 offers in twelve months, and the exemption is lost, even if none of the three buys.
Compare with federal Rule 506(b): it counts non-accredited purchasers (no more than 35) and does not limit the number of offers, but prohibits general solicitation. A question may put both figures in the answer choices: "10" with "offerees" for the USA, "35" with "purchasers" for Regulation D.
The stock of Ridgeline Mining, an unlisted company not found in the recognized securities manuals, is neither registered nor exempt in the state. Four sales take place in the same week.
- A client calls his agent: "Buy me 300 Ridgeline." The agent had never mentioned it. Unsolicited order effected by a registered broker-dealer: exempt transaction.
- The same agent calls ten other clients to recommend Ridgeline to them. Solicited orders, retail clients: no exemption. Unlawful sales of an unregistered security.
- The broker-dealer sells 50,000 Ridgeline to an insurance company, after recommending the stock to it. Sale to an institutional investor: exempt transaction, solicited or not.
- The executor of a deceased shareholder's estate sells the estate's Ridgeline stock. Sale by a fiduciary: exempt transaction.
The security is the same in all four cases. Only the second sale required registration. That is the whole difference from a municipal bond, which is exempt in any sale.
| Exempt security | Exempt transaction | |
|---|---|---|
| What is exempt | The security, for all its sales | That particular sale only |
| Examples | Municipal bond, bank stock, commercial paper | Unsolicited order, sale to an insurer, sale by an executor |
| Revocation by the Administrator | Only for three categories: listed securities, nonprofit organizations, employee plans | Any transaction exemption |
| Antifraud | Always applies | |
Two reminders that hold for both columns. An exemption relates to the registration of the security; it says nothing about the registration of the person who sells. The agent of a broker-dealer who effects an unsolicited order, or who sells a municipal bond, must be registered. And an exemption is not obtained by default: the person who relies on it must prove that all its conditions were met.
- The USA private placement rule counts offers (10), not purchasers. The federal rule (Rule 506(b)) counts non-accredited purchasers (35).
- The burden of proving an exemption is on the person claiming it (§ 402(d)).
- The Administrator revokes an exemption by order and for a specific case, never in a general way: notice, hearing, written findings; a summary order is possible with a hearing within 15 days; no retroactive effect (§ 402(c)). Many study manuals mention only two categories of securities (nonprofit organizations and employee plans); the text adds listed securities.
- Exemptions also dispense with the filing of advertising (§ 403), never with the antifraud provisions.
The federal offering process (Securities Act § 5)
When a company sells securities to the public in several states, it goes through the SEC. The Securities Act of 1933 lays down a simple rule: no sale before the registration statement is effective, and no sale without a prospectus. Time is divided into three periods, and what an agent may say or do changes at each boundary.
How it works in practice: the company chooses an investment bank, which forms a syndicate of underwriters with others. Together, they prepare the registration statement and file it. While the SEC reviews it, the agents of the syndicate's broker-dealers gauge their clients' interest, without being able to take a firm order. When the SEC declares the registration effective, the final price is set, the sales are confirmed, and each buyer receives the final prospectus.
| Period | Permitted | Prohibited |
|---|---|---|
| Pre-filing: before the registration statement is filed | Negotiations between the issuer and the underwriters | Any offer and any sale to the public |
| Cooling-off (waiting period): from filing to effectiveness, at least 20 days | Oral offers; preliminary prospectus (red herring); nonbinding indications of interest; tombstone ad | Sales, confirmations, acceptance of money |
| Post-effective: after effectiveness | Sales, with delivery of the final prospectus | Saying that the SEC has approved the offering |
- Effectiveness is not an approval: the SEC passes neither on the merits of the security nor on the accuracy of the prospectus. Same rule for the Administrator (USA § 405).
- Tombstone ad: an announcement with limited content (issuer, security, quantity, price, names of the underwriters, where to obtain the prospectus). It is neither an offer to sell nor a prospectus, and it says so.
- Firm commitment: the underwriters buy the issue and bear the risk of unsold securities. Best efforts: they act as agents and return what is unsold; all-or-none and mini-max variations, with funds held in escrow until the threshold is reached.
- The syndicate is led by a managing underwriter; members of the selling group sell without any commitment to purchase. The underwriters conduct due diligence on the issuer; stabilization of the price during the offering is the only permitted intervention, disclosed in the prospectus. Unreasonable underwriting compensation is a ground for a stop order (§ 306).
- Primary offering: the proceeds go to the issuer. Secondary offering: they go to the selling shareholders.
The preliminary prospectus owes its nickname, red herring, to the legend printed in red on its cover, which warns that the registration statement is not yet effective and that the document may change. It contains everything except the final price and the date. An indication of interest is the response of a client to whom the offering is presented during the cooling-off period: "I would be interested in 500 shares." It binds neither the client nor the firm. The agent cannot turn it into an order, or accept a check.
BioNova wants to issue 2 million shares at $10, or $20M.
- Firm commitment. The syndicate buys the 2 million shares from BioNova at $9.30 and resells them to the public at $10.00. The $0.70 difference per share, or 2,000,000 × 0.70 = $1.4M, is its compensation (the spread). BioNova receives 2,000,000 × 9.30 = $18.6M, whatever happens. If the public buys only 1.5 million shares, the syndicate is left holding the remaining 500,000. The syndicate acts as principal.
- Best efforts. The underwriter undertakes only to do its best to sell, for a commission. If it places only 1.5 million shares, BioNova raises only $15M, less the commission, and takes back the unsold shares. The underwriter acts as agent.
- Best efforts, all-or-none. The offering goes through only if all 2 million shares are subscribed. The subscribers' funds are held in escrow. At 1.9 million shares, the offering is canceled and each subscriber is refunded. In a mini-max, the threshold is a minimum (for example 1.2 million), and sales can continue up to the maximum.
- The registration statement has not yet been filed. An agent calls his best clients to "reserve" shares of the upcoming offering for them. Prohibited No offer to the public before filing.
- During the cooling-off period, an agent sends the preliminary prospectus to a client and notes that the client would be interested in 300 shares. Permitted Offer and indication of interest, with no sale.
- During the cooling-off period, the same client insists on paying right away; the agent deposits his check "to hold his place." Prohibited No sale, no confirmation, no acceptance of money before effectiveness.
- During the cooling-off period, the agent attaches to the red herring a summary of his own, with his own price projections. Prohibited Only the preliminary prospectus and the tombstone may circulate; a projection would be misleading in any event.
- After effectiveness, the agent says: "The SEC reviewed the filing and approved it, it's a safe investment." Prohibited The SEC approves nothing; saying so is a misrepresentation.
- After effectiveness, the agent confirms the sale and encloses the final prospectus with the confirmation. Compliant The prospectus is delivered no later than with the confirmation.
Antifraud and securities: what the state always keeps
The exam outline places the state's antifraud authority in this section: all the doors described above (exemption of the security, exemption of the transaction, federal covered) concern registration; none concerns fraud. Lying while selling a Treasury security, a Rule 506 placement, or a listed stock is still fraud under USA § 101; the Administrator's powers are detailed in Chapter 7.
Regulation D and the broker-dealer's duty to investigate
A registered public offering is expensive and takes months. The Securities Act therefore allows an issuer to raise money without federal registration if it does not address the public: this is the private placement, whose conditions are set by Regulation D. The idea is the same as for the USA's exempt transactions: wealthy or sophisticated buyers can demand for themselves the information they need and can bear a loss. The central concept is the accredited investor, defined by wealth or professional status. The disclosure document for a private placement is called a private placement memorandum (PPM): it is written by the issuer and is not reviewed by any regulator.
- Accredited investor (Rule 501): a natural person with income over $200,000 ($300,000 with a spouse) in each of the last 2 years, or a net worth over $1M excluding the primary residence; banks, insurers, investment companies, BDs; entities with more than $5M in assets; officers and directors of the issuer; holders in good standing of the Series 7, 65, or 82.
- Rule 506(b): no general solicitation; unlimited accredited investors, plus no more than 35 non-accredited purchasers, who must be sophisticated and who receive detailed disclosure.
- Rule 506(c): general solicitation permitted; all purchasers are accredited, and the issuer takes reasonable steps to verify it.
- Form D: filed with the SEC within 15 days of the first sale. The securities are restricted securities: purchased outside a public offering, they cannot be freely resold to the public before a holding period has run. Disqualification of bad actors: the exemption is lost if the issuer, one of its officers or directors, or a compensated intermediary has previously been convicted or sanctioned for a securities-related offense (Rule 506(d)).
- FINRA Regulatory Notice 10-22: a BD that recommends a private placement must conduct a reasonable investigation of the issuer and its management, its business prospects, its assets, its claims, and the intended use of proceeds. It cannot blindly rely on the issuer's memorandum. The exemption from registration does not dispense with either the antifraud provisions or suitability.
| Rule 506(b) | Rule 506(c) | USA § 402(b)(9) | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Level | Federal | Federal | State |
| Advertising, general solicitation | Prohibited | Permitted | Not applicable: 10 offers at most |
| Who can buy | Unlimited accredited investors, plus 35 sophisticated non-accredited purchasers | Accredited investors only, status verified | Wealth does not matter; purchase for investment |
| What is counted | Non-accredited purchasers | Nothing | Offers to non-institutional persons in the state, in 12 months |
| Consequence in the state | Federal covered security: notice filing on Form D, 15 days after the first sale in the state | Exempt transaction | |
- A single dentist earned $230,000 and $245,000 in the last two years and expects the same level this year. Her net worth is $700,000. Income over $200,000 for two years: accredited, under the income test. One test is enough.
- A couple earns $280,000 together. Their net worth is $1.5M, including a primary residence worth $600,000. Income: under $300,000 jointly, test not met. Net worth excluding the primary residence: 1,500,000 − 600,000 = $900,000, under $1M. Not accredited.
- A retiree has only $60,000 of income, but $1.3M in securities and no debt, in addition to his house. Net worth excluding the residence: $1.3M, over $1M. Accredited.
- A 28-year-old agent, a holder in good standing of the Series 7, with $40,000 in savings. Accredited through her professional qualification.
An issuer using Rule 506(b) could sell to all four: three accredited investors, and the couple among the 35 non-accredited purchasers, if they are sophisticated and receive the detailed disclosure. Under Rule 506(c), the couple cannot buy, and the issuer must verify the status of the other three (tax returns, statements, written confirmation from a professional), not merely have them check a box.
The duty to investigate in Regulatory Notice 10-22 responds to a specific problem: in a private placement, no one has reviewed the documents. The client who buys on an agent's recommendation assumes that the firm, at least, has checked. So the firm must have done so. The warning signs (red flags) the firm cannot ignore: promised returns far above the market, unaudited financial statements, an officer who has already been sanctioned, a vague use of proceeds.
- An agent recommends a private placement to his clients by reading them the issuer's memorandum, which his firm has not verified. Breach The firm cannot rely solely on the issuer's document.
- The firm visited the premises, met the officers, checked their backgrounds, and had the financial statements reviewed. The agent recommends the placement to an accredited client whose profile allows it. Compliant Reasonable investigation, then suitability.
- An agent recommends the same placement, risky and illiquid, to a 78-year-old widow who needs her income. She is accredited by her net worth. Breach Being accredited does not make the recommendation suitable.
- An issuer posts an advertisement on a social network for its Rule 506(b) offering. Violation General solicitation is prohibited under 506(b).
- Three doors: registered security, exemption (of the security or of the transaction), federal covered security. Otherwise, unlawful sale.
- Filing: established issuer, effective with the federal registration after 5 business days. Coordination: SEC filing, effective with the federal registration (10 days, prices on file for 2 business days, no stop order). Qualification: any security, the only route without a federal filing, effective by order of the Administrator.
- Registration of a security: 1 year from effectiveness. Reports no more often than quarterly. Escrow and impound possible.
- Federal covered: listed securities, funds, Rule 506. Notice filing and fee (funds, Rule 506; nothing for listed securities), no registration; antifraud intact.
- Exempt security: the issuer (governments, Canada, banks, insurers, public utilities, nonprofits, commercial paper 270 days and $50,000). Exempt transaction: the sale (isolated, unsolicited, institutional, fiduciary, pledgee, 10 offers in 12 months).
- The exemption of the security or of the transaction exempts neither the agent of a BD nor anyone from the antifraud provisions. Burden of proof on the person claiming it.
- Federal process: pre-filing (nothing), cooling-off of at least 20 days (offers, red herring, indications of interest, tombstone; no sales), post-effective (sales with prospectus). Never "approved."
- Regulation D: accredited ($200,000 / $300,000 of income, or $1M excluding the residence); 506(b) without advertising and 35 non-accredited; 506(c) with advertising, accredited investors verified; Form D within 15 days. The BD investigates (Notice 10-22).
Chapter quiz
Remedies and Powers of the Administrator
What the regulator can do, what it cannot do, what a person who violates the Act risks, and what the client can recover.
Three paths for the same misconduct
A law is worth only what happens to those who violate it. The Uniform Securities Act provides three responses, which pursue three different purposes and can all apply to the same facts. Nearly every question in this chapter asks you, at bottom, not to attribute to one what belongs to another.
| Administrative | Civil | Criminal | |
|---|---|---|---|
| Purpose | Protect the public: remove or restrict the professional | Compensate: give the investor's money back | Punish |
| Who acts | The Administrator | The injured investor | The prosecutor (attorney general, district attorney) |
| Who decides | The Administrator, subject to review by a court | A civil court | A criminal court |
| Outcome | Denial, suspension, revocation, cease and desist | Rescission or damages | Fine, imprisonment |
| Fault required | A statutory ground and the public interest | No intent required | Willful violation (willful) |
An agent who sells an unregistered security while lying about its risks can thus, for that single sale, lose his or her registration (administrative), have to repay the client (civil), and be convicted (criminal). The Administrator acts directly only on the first path. On the other two, the Administrator can help (go to court, refer a case to the prosecutor), but does not decide.
A little procedural vocabulary. An order is a decision directed at a specific person. A hearing is a proceeding at which the person concerned can present a defense. A subpoena is a compulsory demand to testify or to produce documents. An injunction is an order from a court to do or not to do something, and violating it is punished as contempt of court (contempt). A receiver is a person appointed by the court to take control of the defendant's assets. Rescission undoes the sale: each side gives back what it received. Restitution returns to the victims what they lost; disgorgement takes away from the wrongdoer the profit made from the violation.
Antifraud: the rule with no exception
This is the heart of the Act, and its broadest provision. Registration has dozens of exclusions and exemptions; antifraud has none. The reason is easy to see: one can accept that a bank or a Treasury security does not need to be registered; one cannot accept that anyone has the right to lie.
- USA § 101: it is unlawful for any person, in connection with the offer, sale, or purchase of any security, to employ a scheme to defraud, to make an untrue statement of a material fact or to omit a material fact necessary to keep what was said from being misleading, or to engage in a practice that operates as a fraud. No exemption: exempt securities, exempt transactions, federal covered securities, unregistered persons, everything is covered. The buyer who deceives a seller is covered just like the seller who deceives a buyer.
- USA § 102: same prohibition for anyone who is compensated for giving advice about securities, including persons excluded from the definition of investment adviser and federal covered advisers.
- Fraud, deceit, defraud are not limited to common-law deceit (§ 401(d)): there is no need to prove intent to harm or a loss.
Three concepts to master. A material fact is a fact that a reasonable investor would consider important in making a decision: the issuer's financial condition, a lawsuit, an unusual commission, the fact that the firm is selling from its own inventory. The color of the issuer's offices is not one. An omission is silence about such a fact, when that silence makes what was said misleading: the half-truth is fraud. Finally, fraud within the meaning of this Act requires neither intent to harm nor that the victim lost money: a false statement made without checking is enough.
- An agent says that a company "doubled its earnings this year," which is true, without saying that those earnings come from the one-time sale of its headquarters. Fraud Half-truth: the omission makes the statement misleading.
- An investor who knows that a company is about to be acquired at a high price buys its stock from a widow, telling her the shares "aren't worth much anymore." Fraud The buyer who deceives the seller is covered: § 101 covers the purchase as well as the sale.
- A city employee, excluded from the definition of agent, sells exempt municipal bonds while stating that the city has never run a deficit, which is false. Fraud Exempt security, unregistered person: the antifraud provision applies all the same.
- An agent tells a client in good faith: "I think this stock is undervalued," after studying it. The stock falls. Not fraud A sincere, well-founded opinion, presented as such, is not an untrue statement of fact.
- An agent states that a bond is rated AAA without checking; it is rated BB. He did not mean to deceive anyone. Fraud Intent to harm is not required.
- A dealer sells gold bars while lying about their purity. Outside the scope of the USA Gold is not a security. This is ordinary fraud under general law, not securities fraud.
What the Administrator can do
The Administrator combines three functions that are kept separate elsewhere: writing rules, investigating, and judging the misconduct of the professionals he or she has registered. The Administrator's powers are broad as long as they remain in the administrative sphere. They stop where the powers of the courts begin: compelling by force, punishing, awarding compensation.
- Make, amend, and rescind rules, forms, and orders (§ 412). A rule is general; an order is directed at specific persons. The Administrator cannot change the Act itself. Rules are published.
- Conduct investigations, public or private, inside and outside the state, and publish information about violations (§ 407).
- Issue subpoenas, take testimony under oath, require documents, including at the request of another state's Administrator.
- Issue a cease and desist order, with or without a prior hearing (§ 408).
- Deny, suspend, revoke a registration; bar, censure, restrict, or limit the activities of a registrant (§ 204).
- Go to court to obtain an injunction, the appointment of a receiver or conservator, and orders of rescission, restitution, or disgorgement. The court cannot require the Administrator to post a bond.
- Issue interpretive opinions and no-action determinations, for a fee (§ 413).
- Refer evidence of a violation to the prosecutor for criminal prosecution (§ 409).
- Cooperate with other states, the SEC, the CFTC, SIPC, and the SROs (§ 420).
What the Administrator cannot do: arrest someone, impose a prison sentence, issue an injunction himself or herself, award damages to a client. The Administrator and his or her staff cannot use for their own benefit nonpublic information obtained in the course of their duties (§ 406).
| Cease and desist order | Injunction | |
|---|---|---|
| Who issues it | The Administrator | A court, on application by the Administrator |
| Prior hearing | Not required | Decision of the judge, "upon a proper showing" |
| When | A violation has occurred or is about to occur | Same condition |
| If it is not obeyed | The Administrator must go to court to have it enforced | Contempt of court |
| Against whom | Any person, registered or not | |
The Administrator of Georgia learns that an unregistered promoter is selling "forest shares" to retirees in Atlanta with a promised return of 15% per year.
- Investigation. The Administrator opens an investigation, which can be kept confidential. It can extend outside Georgia: the promoter has his accounts in Alabama.
- Subpoena. The Administrator subpoenas the promoter's accountant and demands the bank statements. The accountant does not appear. The Administrator cannot force him to: the Administrator applies to a court, which orders the accountant to appear. If the accountant still disobeys, it is the court that punishes him for contempt.
- Cease and desist. The sales continue. The Administrator orders the promoter to stop, without a prior hearing. It does not matter that the promoter is not registered: the order can be directed at "any person."
- Court. The promoter ignores the order. The Administrator asks a court for an injunction, the appointment of a receiver to freeze what remains of the funds, and restitution to the investors.
- Criminal. The Administrator refers the case to the prosecutor, who decides whether or not to prosecute.
At no point did the Administrator arrest anyone, impose a criminal fine, or personally give the retirees their money back: those are powers of the courts.
If someone ignores a subpoena (contumacy), the Administrator applies to the court, which orders the person to appear; it is disobedience to the court that is punished as contempt. No one may refuse to testify on the ground of self-incrimination; but a person who is compelled to testify after claiming that privilege cannot be prosecuted for the matters disclosed, except for perjury or contempt (§ 407(d)).
Other administrative rules: hearings are public, unless all the parties concerned request a private hearing; the Administrator keeps a public register of applications, registrations, and orders; a document is "filed" when the Administrator receives it; no one is liable for an act done in good faith in conformity with a rule or order, even if it is later rescinded (§ 412(e)).
Deny, suspend, revoke (§ 204)
Two conditions are required: the order must be in the public interest, and there must be a ground provided by the statute, concerning the applicant or, for a firm, one of its partners, officers, directors, or controlling persons:
- application for registration false or incomplete in a material respect;
- willful (willful) violation of the state Act, a rule, or an order, or of the federal securities laws;
- conviction within the past 10 years of a securities-related misdemeanor or one involving the securities business, or of any felony;
- court injunction in effect relating to the securities business;
- denial, suspension, or revocation order of an Administrator; decision of another regulator within the past 10 years; sanction by a foreign regulator within the past 5 years;
- dishonest or unethical practices in the securities business;
- insolvency;
- lack of qualification (training, experience, knowledge);
- failure to reasonably supervise;
- unpaid fee (denial only, vacated as soon as the fee is paid).
- Lack of experience alone is not enough if the applicant is qualified by training or knowledge.
- A misdemeanor unrelated to securities (disorderly conduct, for example) is not a ground; a felony of any kind is a ground for 10 years.
- Willful means that the person knew what he or she was doing; the person need not have known that it violated the law.
- The Administrator cannot base a suspension or revocation solely on a final judicial or administrative order that the applicant had disclosed to the Administrator before the registration became effective, unless the Administrator acts within 90 days. For a security, the equivalent period is 30 days (§ 306). The original 1956 text said 30 days for any known fact, and some older study guides still use it; the 2002 Act, which is not tested, says one year.
Procedure. Before a final order, the person concerned (and the employer, if the person is an agent or IAR) is entitled to: prior notice, an opportunity for a hearing, and written findings of fact and conclusions of law. The Administrator may suspend summarily in the meantime; if a hearing is requested in writing, it is held within 15 days. Appeal to a court: within 60 days, and the appeal does not stay the order, unless the court so decides (§ 411). The person who brings the appeal is the person harmed by the order (aggrieved); the suspension of the order, if granted, is called a stay. The court may affirm, modify, or set aside the order, in whole or in part; the Administrator's findings of fact are binding on the court if they are supported by sufficient evidence (competent, material and substantial evidence).
The two conditions are cumulative, and the exam likes to separate them. A statutory ground without the public interest is not enough; neither is the public interest without a ground from the list. The Administrator therefore cannot deny an applicant because he or she finds the applicant unpleasant, or because the local market already has too many agents. And the procedure protects the person concerned: taking away someone's profession is serious, so the law requires that the person be notified, heard, and given the reasons for the decision in writing. The only departure is the summary suspension, which responds to urgency; it is offset by the right to a prompt hearing.
The Administrator of Arizona suspects an agent, Mr. Voss, of having misappropriated the funds of two clients.
- May 4. The Administrator summarily suspends Mr. Voss's registration, without a hearing, pending the outcome of the proceeding. The Administrator immediately notifies Mr. Voss and his firm, with the reasons.
- May 8. The Administrator receives Mr. Voss's written request for a hearing. The hearing must be set within 15 days: no later than May 23. If he had requested nothing, the suspension would have remained in effect.
- June 10. After the hearing, the Administrator issues a final order of revocation, with written findings of fact and conclusions of law.
- Appeal. Mr. Voss has 60 days to go to court: until August 9. During that time, he remains revoked: the appeal does not stay the order, unless the court decides otherwise.
- Felony for tax fraud 8 years ago. Grounds Any felony within 10 years.
- Felony for car theft 13 years ago. Not grounds More than 10 years. It must still be disclosed on Form U4.
- Misdemeanor for selling securities without a license 5 years ago. Grounds Misdemeanor involving the securities business, within 10 years.
- Misdemeanor for drunk driving 2 years ago. Not grounds Unrelated to securities.
- Applicant with a finance degree, exams passed, no work experience. Not grounds Lack of experience alone is not enough.
- Applicant who "forgot" to mention a sanction from another state on his application. Grounds Application incomplete in a material respect; the other state's sanction is a separate ground.
- Firm with a director who is subject to an injunction for securities fraud. Grounds The ground may concern a partner, officer, director, or controlling person.
Five words not to confuse
| Action | Who decides | Nature | Detail |
|---|---|---|---|
| Deny | Administrator | Sanction | Refusal of an application, on a statutory ground and in the public interest |
| Suspend | Administrator | Temporary sanction | Can be summary, pending the outcome of a proceeding |
| Revoke | Administrator | Permanent sanction | Statutory ground, public interest, notice, hearing, written findings |
| Cancel | Administrator | Administrative action, not a sanction | The registrant no longer exists, has ceased to do business, has been adjudged incompetent, or cannot be located |
| Withdraw | The registrant | Voluntary | Effective after 30 days; the Administrator can still act for 1 year; withdrawal subject to conditions if a proceeding has been instituted |
To tell them apart, ask two questions. Who takes the initiative? If it is the registrant, it is a withdrawal. Is there any wrongdoing alleged? If there is none, it is a cancellation: the Administrator is updating the records, nothing more. If there is, it is a sanction: denial if the registration has not yet been granted, suspension if it is taken away for a time, revocation if it is taken away for good. The distinction has lasting consequences: a revocation must be disclosed on all future forms and is a ground for denial in other states; a cancellation leaves no mark.
- An agent dies. Cancel The registrant no longer exists.
- A firm closes without notice; the Administrator's mail comes back "not known at this address." Cancel Ceased to do business, registrant cannot be located.
- An agent is adjudged mentally incompetent by a court. Cancel No wrongdoing.
- An applicant lied on the application, and the Administrator notices before it becomes effective. Deny There is no registration yet to take away.
- An agent registered for three years is found to have engaged in churning. Suspend or revoke Sanction, depending on the seriousness.
- An agent retires and files an application to withdraw. Withdraw Effective after 30 days.
- An agent who knows he is under investigation files an application to withdraw; the Administrator institutes a revocation proceeding twelve days later. Conditional withdrawal The withdrawal becomes effective only on the conditions set by the Administrator, who can order revocation.
Criminal and civil penalties
The two columns of the table below do not answer the same question. The criminal side asks: does this person deserve to be punished? It therefore requires that the person acted willfully, and the penalty is imposed by a judge. The civil side asks: should this investor get the money back? For that, it is enough that the sale was unlawful or misleading, even through mere negligence on the seller's part.
| Criminal (§ 409) | Civil (§ 410) | |
|---|---|---|
| Penalty | Fine of up to $5,000 and/or 3 years in prison | Rescission: price paid + interest at the legal rate + costs and attorney's fees, less income received, upon tender of the security |
| Statute of limitations | 5 years | 3 years after the sale or 2 years after discovery, whichever comes first |
| Condition | Willful violation (willful) | Unlawful sale, or untrue statement or omission, even without intent |
| Who decides | A criminal court, on prosecution by the prosecutor | A civil court, in an action brought by the client |
- A person who proves that he or she had no knowledge of the rule or order violated cannot be imprisoned, but can be fined. Ignorance of the Act itself is no excuse.
- A buyer who no longer owns the security recovers damages: what the buyer would have recovered, less the value of the security when it was resold, with interest.
- The seller escapes liability for a misstatement by proving that he or she did not know of the untruth and could not have known of it with reasonable care; a buyer who knew the truth cannot sue.
- Joint and several liability (§ 410(c)): every person who controls the liable seller, its partners, officers, and directors, its employees who materially aid in the sale, and every BD or agent who materially aids in it, unless they prove they did not know of the facts through no fault of their own. Those who are jointly liable have a right of contribution among themselves.
- For unlawful or fraudulent advice: refund of the fees + losses caused by the advice + interest + costs, less income received from the advice.
- The cause of action survives the death of the plaintiff as well as of the defendant.
- A person who made a contract in violation of the Act cannot sue to enforce it.
- A provision by which the client waives rights under the Act (waiver) is void.
- These remedies are in addition to those available under general law; the Act provides for neither punitive nor multiple damages.
Joint and several liability (joint and several liability) means that the client can claim the entire amount from any one of the liable persons: from the agent, from the firm, from the executive who controls it. The one who paid then turns to the others for their share (this is contribution). For the client, the benefit is obvious: the agent at fault is often insolvent, the firm is not.
Ms. Tran bought 1,000 shares at $20 of a security that was neither registered nor exempt. She received $600 in dividends. Two years after the purchase, she sues and wins; her costs and attorney's fees are $1,500. Assume a legal interest rate of 6% per year.
- Price paid: 1,000 × 20 = $20,000.
- Interest: 20,000 × 6% × 2 years = $2,400.
- Costs and fees: $1,500.
- Less income received: − $600.
- Total: 20,000 + 2,400 + 1,500 − 600 = $23,300, upon tender of the 1,000 shares to the seller.
The current price of the stock does not enter into the calculation: whether the security is worth $5 or $40, rescission returns the price paid. That is why a buyer whose security has gone up will not seek rescission, and a buyer whose security has dropped will.
Variation: Ms. Tran has already resold her shares for $12,000. She can no longer return them: she claims damages. What she would have recovered by returning them (20,000 + 2,400 − 600 = $21,800), less what she received on the resale ($12,000), or $9,800, plus interest from the resale and her costs.
An unlawful sale takes place on January 10, 2023. The civil statute of limitations is 3 years after the sale or 2 years after discovery, whichever comes first.
- The buyer discovers the facts in July 2023. Two years after discovery: July 2025. Three years after the sale: January 10, 2026. The earlier date is July 2025.
- The buyer discovers them in March 2024. Two years later: March 2026. Three years after the sale: January 10, 2026. The earlier date is January 10, 2026.
- The buyer discovers them in June 2026. The three years ran out on January 10, 2026: too late, whatever the date of discovery.
The 3-year cap is absolute. On the criminal side, the prosecutor has 5 years from the violation: until January 10, 2028.
- An agent knowingly sells an unregistered security while making up its financial results. Criminal and civil Willful violation: up to $5,000 and 3 years; and the client can seek rescission.
- An agent violates a rule of the Administrator published the previous month and proves that he had no knowledge of it. Fine possible, no prison Ignorance of a rule or order avoids imprisonment only.
- An agent argues that he did not know the Act requires securities to be registered. No excuse Ignorance of the Act itself offers no protection.
- A client signed, at account opening, a provision by which he "waives any claim based on the securities act." The client can sue The provision is void.
- A client who knew perfectly well that the agent's statement was false buys anyway, then seeks rescission for misrepresentation. Claim dismissed A buyer who knew the truth cannot sue on that basis.
- The injured client dies before trial. The action continues It passes to her estate.
A seller who discovers the violation can offer in writing, before any suit, to refund the price paid with interest, less income received. Two cases:
- the buyer still owns the security: if the buyer does not accept the offer within 30 days of receiving it, the buyer loses the right to sue;
- the buyer no longer owns the security: the buyer loses the right to sue, unless the buyer rejects the offer in writing within 30 days.
The rescission offer is the way for a seller who realizes the mistake to settle the problem before a lawsuit. The law encourages it, because the investor is repaid quickly and without cost. In exchange, it gives the seller certainty: after 30 days, the seller knows where things stand. The difference between the two cases comes down to what the buyer can still do. If the buyer has the security, a true unwinding of the sale is on offer: the buyer has only to accept, and silence counts as giving up the claim. If the buyer no longer has it, a sum of money is on offer: the buyer must say no in writing to keep the right to dispute the amount before a judge.
A broker-dealer discovers that it sold to two clients, in March, a security that was not registered in the state. On September 1st, each receives a written rescission offer: refund of the price with interest, less dividends.
- Mr. Adler still owns his shares, which have lost 40%. If he accepts before October 1st, he returns the shares and is repaid. If he lets the 30 days go by without accepting, he keeps his shares and can no longer sue the firm on that basis.
- Ms. Brandt resold hers at a loss in June. The offer proposes a sum that she considers inadequate. If she does nothing for 30 days, she loses her right to sue. To preserve it, she must reject the offer in writing within the 30 days. A refusal by phone is not enough.
In both cases, silence benefits the seller. The exam trap is to reverse the two situations, or to offer a period of 60 or 90 days.
Federal remedies and arbitration
- SEC Rule 10b-5: general prohibition of fraud in the purchase and sale of securities; it is the basis for SEC actions and for a private action by investors. USA § 101 is its copy at the state level.
- Securities Act § 11 and § 12: liability for an inaccurate registration statement or prospectus.
- Insider trading: civil penalty of up to three times the profit; federal criminal penalties (Chapter 9).
- FINRA arbitration: account agreements generally contain an arbitration clause; the award is final and binding, with very limited judicial review.
These federal remedies exist alongside the state remedies: the same lie violates both USA § 101 and Rule 10b-5, and both the SEC and the Administrator can act. Arbitration is a private form of dispute resolution: instead of going to court, the client and the firm submit their dispute to arbitrators, under a procedure run by FINRA. The client agreed to this by signing the account agreement. Remember the link with what came before: an arbitration clause changes the forum where the dispute is decided; it does not take away the rights the law gives the client; a clause that made the client waive those rights would be void.
SIPC
The last safety net concerns neither fraud nor sanctions, but a simpler risk: that the broker-dealer holding your securities goes bankrupt and they are no longer there. SIPC was created by a 1970 federal statute (the Securities Investor Protection Act) so that the failure of a firm would not ruin its customers. Its role is to return to the customer what was in the account, up to a limit, not to protect the customer against a bad investment.
The Securities Investor Protection Corporation is a nonprofit organization, funded by its members, the registered broker-dealers. It steps in when a member BD fails and customers' securities or cash are missing.
- Limit: $500,000 per separate customer, of which no more than $250,000 for cash.
- Separate capacity: an individual account, a joint account, an IRA, a Roth IRA, a trust account are covered separately. Two accounts held in the same capacity (a cash account and a margin account in the same name) are combined.
- Covered: stocks, bonds, fund shares (money market funds count as securities), cash held for the purchase of securities.
- Not covered: the decline in value of securities, bad advice, fraud by an issuer, commodity futures contracts, currencies, unregistered investment contracts.
- A trustee liquidates the firm; positions are valued as of the filing date of the proceeding; securities are returned when possible.
- SIPC is not the FDIC: the FDIC insures bank deposits; SIPC does not guarantee the value of any security. An agent cannot say that an account is "insured against losses."
Account containing $150,000 in securities and $290,000 in cash at a bankrupt BD: securities covered $150,000; cash capped at $250,000; total $400,000. The remaining $40,000 becomes a general creditor claim in the liquidation.
The calculation method takes three steps: (1) combine the accounts held in the same capacity; (2) for each group, cap the cash at $250,000; (3) add the securities and the cash allowed, and cap the total at $500,000.
The broker-dealer is in liquidation and customer assets are missing. How much does SIPC cover?
- $600,000 in securities, no cash. Securities: $600,000, overall limit of $500,000. Covered: $500,000. Not covered: $100,000.
- $100,000 in securities and $450,000 in cash. Cash capped at $250,000. Total: 100,000 + 250,000 = $350,000. Not covered: $200,000 of cash. The overall limit is not reached, but the cash limit is.
- $400,000 in securities and $200,000 in cash. The cash is under its limit, but the total of $600,000 exceeds $500,000. Covered: $500,000.
- An individual account with $450,000 in securities, and a joint account with his wife with $400,000 in securities. Two different capacities: each account has its own limit. Covered: $450,000 + $400,000 = $850,000.
- A cash account with $350,000 in securities and a margin account with $250,000 of equity, in the same name. Same capacity: the accounts are combined, for $600,000, and then a single limit is applied. Covered: $500,000.
Last case: a customer's securities were worth $420,000 one year before the failure and $300,000 on the filing date of the proceeding. SIPC does not cover the $120,000 market decline: it returns the securities, or their value on the filing date, which is $300,000.
- "Your account is insured by SIPC up to $500,000 against losses." Misleading SIPC does not cover losses in value.
- "Our firm is a member of SIPC, which protects the securities and cash in your account, within certain limits, if the firm fails." Accurate
- "SIPC is like the FDIC for banks." Misleading The FDIC insures deposits; SIPC does not guarantee the value of any investment.
- "Your oil futures contracts are covered too." False Commodity futures are excluded.
- Antifraud (§ 101, § 102): any person, any security, offer, sale, and purchase. No exemption. Intent not required.
- The Administrator can: make rules and orders, investigate, issue subpoenas, issue a cease and desist order (with or without a hearing), deny / suspend / revoke, go to court, refer to the prosecutor. The Administrator cannot: issue an injunction, imprison, award compensation.
- Sanction against a registration: public interest and statutory ground. Notice, hearing, written findings. Summary suspension: hearing within 15 days of the written request. Appeal: 60 days, does not stay the order.
- Felony: 10 years; misdemeanor: only if securities-related. Lack of experience alone is not enough.
- Cancel: not a sanction. Withdraw: voluntary, 30 days, jurisdiction for 1 year.
- Criminal: willful, $5,000 and/or 3 years, statute of limitations 5 years. Ignorance of a rule: no prison.
- Civil: rescission (price + interest + costs − income), statute of limitations 3 years after the sale or 2 years after discovery, whichever comes first. Waiver void.
- Rescission offer: 30 days. Security still held: the buyer must accept. Security resold: the buyer must reject in writing.
- SIPC: $500,000 per separate capacity, of which $250,000 in cash. Not market declines, not commodities.
Chapter quiz
Communication with Customers and Prospects
Everything you say, write, publish, have signed, keep on file, or leave out. The general rule: never mislead anyone about a material fact, meaning a fact that a reasonable investor would consider important. This section also covers customer agreements (new account, margin, options), books and records, and privacy.
Why what an agent says is regulated
A security cannot be seen or tried out. The customer cannot judge a stock or a bond for himself the way he would judge a car: he buys what he is told about it. In this business, information is the product. That is why one fifth of the exam deals with communication, and why the rules are so detailed. Yet they boil down to four ideas, which organize the whole chapter:
- Say nothing false or misleading, including by omission (prohibited statements, content standards for advertising).
- Say what must be said, at the right time and in the right form (confirmation, prospectus, risk disclosure documents for options and margin, the adviser's brochure).
- Have the firm review whatever goes to the public (approval by a principal, supervision of correspondence).
- Keep a record of everything (books and records, message archiving) and protect what the customer has entrusted to you (privacy).
Most questions describe a sentence spoken by an agent, a message sent, or a document delivered, and ask whether it is permitted. When you are unsure, apply these four ideas in order: is it accurate and complete? Did the customer receive the required document? Did a principal approve it if approval was needed? Does the firm have a copy?
Prohibited statements
Three of these prohibitions are named in the exam outline: false claims about registration, performance guarantees, and more broadly anything that misleads about the product.
- Saying that the registration of a security or of a professional, or an exemption, means that the Administrator has approved it, recommended it, or passed on its merits (USA § 405). You may say you are "registered," never "approved."
- Guaranteeing a return or the absence of loss. A security may be called "guaranteed" only if a third party guarantees payment of principal, interest, or dividends (§ 401(e)).
- Promising that a security will be listed on an exchange with no real basis.
- Omitting a material fact, or presenting a half-truth.
- Giving fictitious quotations or prices that are not bona fide.
- Presenting projections as facts, hiding the risks, using a presentation based on conjecture.
- Making a false statement in a document filed with the Administrator (§ 404).
These rules apply to oral and written statements alike, and to any security, exempt or not. A disclaimer does not cure a misleading statement.
Why "registered" but never "approved." Registration is a check of form: the file is complete, the fees are paid, nothing stands in the way. The Administrator has not verified that the security is a good investment, or that the agent is competent or honest. If an agent could say "the state has approved me," the customer would believe there was an official endorsement and would lower his guard. The law therefore prohibits any statement that turns registration into a seal of quality. Saying "I am registered in this state" is an accurate fact, and permitted. Saying "I am registered, so the state vouches for my reliability" is illegal, even if the registration is in fact in effect.
Why no guarantees. No one can guarantee the price of a security. Anyone who promises it is lying, or else is committing to reimburse the customer out of his own pocket, which is another violation. The word guaranteed does, however, have a legitimate and narrow use: when a person other than the issuer has undertaken to pay the principal, interest, or dividends if the issuer does not. A subsidiary's bond guaranteed by its parent company is a "guaranteed bond." The guarantee covers the payments, not the market price of the security, and the agent must say so.
- "This security is registered with the state, which means the Administrator has reviewed it and found it sound." Illegal Registration is not approval.
- "I am an agent registered in this state, and so is my firm." Permitted An accurate fact, with no suggestion of approval.
- "This security is exempt from registration: that proves the state considers it safe." Illegal An exemption is not approval either.
- "U.S. Treasury bonds are guaranteed by the federal government as to payment of interest and principal." Permitted Accurate; it does not say their price cannot fall.
- "If the stock hasn't gone up 10% in a year, I'll buy it back from you at your purchase price." Illegal Guarantee against loss.
- "This company will be listed on Nasdaq in three months," when no application has been filed. Illegal Promise of a listing with no basis.
- "According to our analysts, earnings could grow; here are their assumptions and the risks." Permitted An opinion presented as such, with its basis and its risks.
- "This fund returned 12% last year," without mentioning that the ten-year average is 3%. Misleading Half-truth.
- An agent shows a price of $14 for a thinly traded stock, when no one is willing to buy at that price. Illegal Fictitious quotation.
Filing of sales literature (USA § 403)
The Administrator may require, by rule or order, the filing of any prospectus, pamphlet, circular, form letter, advertisement, or other sales literature intended for prospective investors, including clients of an adviser, unless the security or transaction is exempt (§ 402) or the security is federal covered.
In other words, the state may ask to see advertising before it circulates, for the securities it registers. For exempt securities and federal covered securities, it cannot require this. In every case, misleading advertising remains fraud: the fact that no filing was required does not protect its author.
Required disclosures
Not lying is not enough: some information must be given without the customer having to ask for it. It answers questions he would not think to ask. How much did I pay, and to whom? Was my firm my intermediary or my seller? Does it have an interest in this security? The exam outline calls these required product disclosures.
- Confirmation (SEC Rule 10b-10), no later than completion of the transaction (at or before completion, meaning payment and delivery): date, security, quantity, price, capacity (the firm acted as agent, paid by a commission, or as principal, paid by a markup or markdown), and the amount of the commission in an agency trade.
- Account statements (FINRA Rule 2231): at least once every calendar quarter for any account with a position, a balance, or activity.
- Conflicts of interest: the firm is a market maker, holds the security, is participating in the distribution, or is linked to the issuer by a control relationship. To be disclosed before the transaction; if the disclosure is oral, it is supplemented in writing at or before completion of the transaction.
- Fees: any service charge must be reasonable and disclosed.
- Prospectus: delivered no later than the date the confirmation of a new issue is sent.
- New or complex products: features, costs, and risks presented in a fair and balanced way.
- Performance: no projections; return shown net of fees and accompanied by standardized total return for funds.
- Holding of mail (FINRA Rule 3150): only on the customer's written instructions stating the time period; beyond 3 consecutive months, an acceptable reason (safety or security) is required. Confirmations and statements are never held at the agent's initiative.
The confirmation is the trade notice: the document sent after each transaction, which sets out its terms. The account statement (or simply statement) periodically summarizes positions and activity. These two documents are the customer's main way of checking what is happening in his account; an agent who intercepts them, has them sent to his own address, or "holds them for the customer" deprives the customer of that check, and this is often the sign of a fraud.
A customer buys 200 shares of Delta Tools at $50.
- If the firm acted as agent, the confirmation shows: purchase of 200 shares at $50.00; "as agent"; commission $60; total $10,060. The amount of the commission must appear.
- If the firm acted as principal, it shows: purchase of 200 shares at $50.30; "as principal"; total $10,060. The firm sold from its inventory, and its compensation is in the price.
- If the firm is a market maker in Delta Tools, or if it participated in the distribution of the security, that fact is a conflict of interest to be disclosed.
- If the 200 shares come from a new issue, the final prospectus accompanies the confirmation at the latest.
Opening an account: FINRA Rule 4512
The exam outline places account opening among the customer agreements, along with margin and options. There are two reasons for all this information. The firm must know who it is dealing with (identity, legal age, capacity to contract), and it must know enough for its recommendations to be suitable for the customer (chapter 9). The new account form is completed by the agent with the customer, then accepted by a principal, who commits the firm.
The main types of accounts: the cash account, where the customer pays for each purchase in full; the margin account, where the firm lends him part of the price; the individual account, with a single owner; the joint account, with several owners, each of whom may give orders; the custodial account, held by an adult for a minor; the discretionary account, where the customer has authorized someone in writing to make decisions for him.
- To be kept for each account: the customer's name and residence; whether the customer is of legal age; the associated person responsible for the account; the signature of the partner, officer, or manager who accepts the account; for an entity, the persons authorized to act.
- For a non-institutional account, reasonable efforts to obtain, before settlement of the first transaction: tax identification number or Social Security number, occupation and employer, and whether the customer is an associated person of another member.
- Trusted contact person: the firm makes reasonable efforts to obtain the name and contact information of a trusted person age 18 or older. The absence of one does not prevent the account from being opened. The firm informs the customer in writing that it may contact that person and disclose information to him or her to address possible financial exploitation, or to confirm the customer's contact information, health status, or the identity of a guardian, executor, trustee, or holder of a power of attorney. The trusted contact has no authority over the account.
- Discretionary account: the firm keeps the dated signature of each associated person authorized to exercise discretion.
The trusted contact is a recent invention, tied to the aging of customers. When the firm suspects that an elderly customer is being manipulated, or can no longer reach him, it needs someone to call. But its duty of confidentiality in principle forbids it from discussing the account with a third party. The rule solves the problem in advance: at account opening, the customer is asked to name a person the firm may contact in those situations. That person cannot place orders, withdraw money, or view the account: he or she is only someone to talk to.
Mrs. Garnier, age 71, a widow, wants to open an individual account at a broker-dealer.
- The agent collects her name, her address, and her date of birth (she is of legal age), then tries to obtain her Social Security number, her occupation (retired), and the fact that she is not associated with another broker-dealer. He also collects her investment profile (objectives, financial situation, experience), which is needed for any recommendation.
- He asks her for a trusted contact. She hesitates and prefers not to name anyone. The agent has made reasonable efforts: the account can be opened. He does not have to insist or refuse the account. If she had named her daughter, the firm would have informed her in writing of the cases in which it could contact the daughter.
- A principal reviews the file and signs to accept the account. The firm must keep that signature; acceptance takes place before the first order or promptly afterward, depending on the firm's procedures.
- Within 30 days, the firm sends Mrs. Garnier a copy of her account record so that she can verify it; it will send it to her again at least every 36 months.
- Two years later, Mrs. Garnier's nephew calls to sell securities "on behalf of his aunt." With no written power of attorney on file, the agent refuses the order.
- A prospect refuses to give his occupation and employer. The agent notes this and opens the account after the principal agrees. Permitted The rule calls for reasonable efforts to obtain this information.
- An agent opens an account and executes orders in it; no principal ever sees the file. Noncompliant The account must be accepted by a partner, officer, or manager.
- A 16-year-old wants to open an account in his own name with his savings. Refused A minor: a custodial account held by an adult is required.
- A customer names her brother as trusted contact; the brother calls to find out the balance. Refused The trusted contact has no right of access to, and no authority over, the account.
- To help a customer who does not want his wife to know about his investments, an agent opens the account in the name of the customer's cousin. Violation Fictitious account.
Broker-dealer books and records: SEC Rules 17a-3 and 17a-4
A regulator who walks into a firm can reconstruct what happened only from the documents. The firm must therefore record everything as it happens, and keep it. The logic behind the retention periods: what describes the accounting and the accounts (who owns what, what came in and went out) is kept the longest, 6 years; what describes day-to-day dealings (orders, confirmations, messages, advertising) is kept 3 years; what describes the very existence of the firm is kept as long as the firm exists. In every case, for the first 2 years, the documents must be immediately available.
Rule 17a-3 says which records to make; Rule 17a-4 says how long to keep them. NASAA has no model rule on this subject: federal law prohibits the states from requiring more.
| Record | Retention period |
|---|---|
| Blotters (daily record of purchases, sales, receipts, and deliveries), general ledger, customer account ledgers, securities position record | 6 years, the first 2 in an easily accessible place |
| Customer account records and account opening and maintenance documents | 6 years after the account is closed |
| Order memoranda, confirmations, communications received and sent (including emails), written agreements, powers of attorney, advertisements | 3 years, the first 2 in an easily accessible place |
| Associated person files, record of written complaints | 3 years after the association ends; complaints: at least 3 years (FINRA Rule 4513: 4 years) |
| Articles of incorporation, minute books, stock certificate books | The life of the firm and of its successor |
- Account record (Rule 17a-3(a)(17)): a copy sent to the customer within 30 days of account opening, then at least every 36 months, and within 30 days of a change.
- Electronic storage: non-rewriteable, non-erasable format (WORM), or a system that keeps a complete time-stamped audit trail.
- On the USA side (§ 203): the Administrator may require records within the federal limit and examine them at any time.
The answer older questions expect is often 3 years for the BD versus 5 years for the adviser. If the answer choices distinguish among types of records, apply the table: 6 years for blotters, ledgers, and account records; 3 years for communications, orders, and confirmations; the life of the firm for organizational documents.
A few terms. A blotter is the chronological record of all of the day's transactions. A ledger is a book of accounts: the firm's general ledger, or each customer's account. An order memorandum (or order ticket) is the record of each order: security, quantity, buy or sell, time of receipt and of execution, and whether the order was solicited or discretionary. An agent who marked "unsolicited" on an order he had recommended would be falsifying a record of the firm.
Communications with the public: FINRA Rule 2210
The exam outline calls this part correspondence and advertising. FINRA classifies every written communication by its audience, and the level of review follows the risk: the more retail investors a message reaches, the more it must be reviewed before it goes out. A message to a few customers is reviewed afterward, by sampling. A mass message is approved beforehand. A message limited to professionals falls under internal procedures. Note that the rule covers only written material, on paper or electronic: a telephone conversation is not a "communication" within the meaning of Rule 2210, even though everything the agent says in it remains subject to the antifraud provisions.
| Category | Definition | Review |
|---|---|---|
| Retail communication | Written or electronic communication distributed or made available to more than 25 retail investors within 30 calendar days | Prior approval by a principal; filing with FINRA in some cases |
| Correspondence | Communication to 25 or fewer retail investors within 30 calendar days | No prior approval; supervision and review under the firm's procedures (Rule 3110) |
| Institutional communication | Communication limited to institutional investors | The firm's written procedures; must not be forwarded to retail investors |
- Content standards, for all categories: fair dealing and good faith; a fair and balanced presentation that gives a sound basis for evaluating the facts; no omission that makes the message misleading; no false, exaggerated, or promissory claims; no prediction or projection of performance (a hypothetical illustration of mathematical principles is permitted).
- Testimonials: disclose that they may not be representative, that they guarantee nothing, and that they are paid if the value given exceeds $100.
- Filing with FINRA: during a new member's first year, at least 10 business days before first use; for retail communications about funds, within 10 business days after first use.
- Retention: 3 years, with the name of the principal who approved and the date.
- Each of the firm's websites carries a prominent link to BrokerCheck.
An agent writes a one-page market commentary and wants to send it by email.
- She sends it to 18 retail customers in March. 25 or fewer within 30 days: correspondence. No prior approval; the firm supervises and archives it.
- Two weeks later, she sends the same text to 12 other retail investors. That makes 30 retail recipients in under 30 days: the text has become a retail communication, which should have been approved by a principal before it was sent.
- She sends it to 300 people, all managers of pension funds or insurance companies. Institutional communication: the rule requires no prior approval, but the firm's procedures apply, and the text must not be forwarded to retail investors.
- She posts it on the firm's website. Available to everyone: retail communication, prior approval.
The threshold is "more than 25": 25 recipients is still correspondence; 26 is a retail communication. And whatever the classification, the content must be fair and balanced: the category changes the review, not the standards.
Social media, email, messaging
- It is the content that counts, not the device or the account: a business message is a communication of the firm, to be supervised and archived (Rule 17a-4), even when sent from a personal phone.
- Static content (a profile, a page, a post that stays up): retail communication, so prior approval by a principal.
- Interactive content in real time (forum exchanges, comments): no prior approval, but supervision like correspondence.
- Third-party content: the firm is responsible for it if it took part in preparing it (entanglement) or if it approved or endorsed it, for example by liking or sharing it (adoption).
- Using an application or account that is not approved and not archived to discuss business is a violation, whatever the content.
- A recommendation posted on social media remains subject to suitability and to Regulation Best Interest.
A website can be read from every state. NASAA accepts that a broker-dealer, agent, investment adviser or IAR who posts information on the internet is not "transacting business" in a state where it is not registered, under four conditions:
- the communication carries a clear legend that it may only deal with residents of states where it is registered, or exempt or excluded;
- firewalls prevent individualized responses to residents of a state where it is not registered: no transaction and no personalized advice until it is;
- for an agent or IAR, the site clearly shows the firm with which the individual is associated, and the firm supervises the communications;
- the other rules (antifraud, advertising, records) still apply.
The rules were not rewritten for the internet: FINRA applies the existing categories to the new tools. The useful distinction is between static and interactive. A profile page or a post that stays online resembles an advertisement: there is time to have it approved beforehand. A live exchange resembles a conversation: prior approval is impossible, so the firm reviews afterward. In both cases, the firm must be able to archive: that is why messaging apps it cannot record are prohibited for business, even if the customer prefers them.
- An agent creates a professional profile describing his services, without submitting it to his firm. Violation Static content: prior approval by a principal.
- On a platform approved and archived by his firm, an agent answers questions live in a forum, without prior approval of each answer. Permitted Interactive content, supervised like correspondence.
- A customer writes to his agent on a private encrypted messaging app to ask his opinion on a stock; the agent answers on the same app, which the firm does not archive. Violation Business communication outside approved channels. He must move the exchange to a firm channel.
- A customer posts on the agent's page: "Thanks to him, I made 30%!" The agent does not react. Not adopted Third-party content that the agent neither prepared nor endorsed.
- The agent clicks "Like" on that comment and shares it. Adopted The comment becomes his communication: the testimonial rules apply, as does the ban on exaggerated claims.
- An agent sends a friend an email from his personal address, unrelated to securities. Out of scope It is the content that counts: this is not a business communication.
- An agent writes on his profile: "Financial advisor · guaranteed performance." Violation A guarantee, and the title "advisor" is misleading if he is not an IAR (chapter 9).
Options: rights, obligations, and valuation
The exam outline includes options under two headings: the options account agreement (a customer agreement) and options valuation. So you need to understand the product before its rules. The calculations are simple once you have the mechanics down, and they are sure points.
What an option is
An option is a contract between two people on a stock (the underlying). The buyer pays a sum, the premium (the option's price), and receives in exchange a right: the right to buy or sell the stock at a price agreed in advance, the strike price (also called the exercise price), up to a deadline, the expiration. The seller collects the premium and accepts the corresponding obligation: if the buyer exercises the right, the seller must perform. The buyer is never required to exercise: if the trade is not favorable to him, he lets the option expire and loses only the premium.
- A call gives the right to buy. You buy one when you think the stock will go up: you will be able to buy it at the strike, cheaper than the market.
- A put gives the right to sell. You buy one when you think the stock will go down: you will be able to sell it at the strike, higher than the market. You also buy one to protect stock you own.
- The buyer is called the holder or is said to be long; the seller, the writer or short. To exercise is to use your right; to be assigned is, for the seller, to be designated to perform.
- An option is read like this: "1 XYZ October 50 call at 3" = one contract, on XYZ stock, expiring in October, strike 50, a call, premium of 3 dollars per share. Because the contract covers 100 shares, it costs 3 × 100 = $300.
Why sell an option, since you take on an obligation? To collect the premium. The seller is betting that the option will not be exercised: if he is right, he keeps the premium without delivering anything. If he is wrong, his loss can be far greater than the premium, which explains the special rules on uncovered writing. A call is covered when the seller owns the shares he would have to deliver; it is uncovered (or naked) when he does not own them and would have to buy them at the market price, whatever it is.
| Buyer (holder, long) | Seller (writer, short) | |
|---|---|---|
| Call | Right to buy at the strike. Bullish. Max loss: the premium. Max gain: unlimited. | Obligation to sell at the strike. Bearish or neutral. Max gain: the premium. Max loss: unlimited if the call is uncovered. |
| Put | Right to sell at the strike. Bearish. Max loss: the premium. Max gain: (strike − premium) × 100. | Obligation to buy at the strike. Bullish or neutral. Max gain: the premium. Max loss: (strike − premium) × 100. |
- One contract covers 100 shares. The premium is quoted per share: a premium of 3 costs $300.
- Premium = intrinsic value + time value. Intrinsic value is the amount by which the option is in the money; time value depends on the time remaining, volatility, and interest rates, and falls to zero at expiration.
- Direction of the effects on time value: more time remaining or more volatility, higher premium, for calls and puts alike; time value erodes as expiration approaches (time decay); an option that is out of the money or at the money has only time value. Intrinsic value is never negative.
- Call in the money: market price > strike. Put in the money: market price < strike. At the money: market price = strike. Otherwise out of the money: zero intrinsic value.
- Breakeven at expiration: call = strike + premium; put = strike − premium (for the buyer and the seller alike).
- Covered call (stock owned + call sold): max gain = (strike − purchase price) + premium; breakeven = purchase price − premium.
- Protective put (stock owned + put bought): max loss = (purchase price − strike) + premium; breakeven = purchase price + premium.
To understand where these formulas come from, follow a position to expiration while varying the stock price. The method is always the same: (1) what is the right worth at expiration? (2) subtract or add the premium; (3) multiply by 100.
Buy 1 XYZ 70 call at 5 (cost: $500).
- XYZ closes at 62: there is no point in buying at 70 what is worth 62. The option expires worthless. Loss: the premium, $500.
- XYZ closes at 72: the right is worth 2, but the premium cost 5. Result: (2 − 5) × 100 = − $300.
- XYZ closes at 75: the right is worth 5, equal to the premium. Result zero: this is the breakeven, 70 + 5.
- XYZ closes at 88: the right is worth 18. Result: (18 − 5) × 100 = + $1,300. The higher the stock goes, the larger the gain, with no ceiling.
Sell 1 XYZ 80 call uncovered at 6 (premium received: $600). This is the exact mirror image of the buyer.
- XYZ closes at 74: the call is not exercised. Gain: the premium, $600. That is the maximum.
- XYZ closes at 86: the seller must deliver at 80 shares that are worth 86, a loss of 6, offset by the premium of 6. Breakeven: 80 + 6.
- XYZ closes at 95: a loss of 15 on delivery, less the premium of 6: (6 − 15) × 100 = − $900. If XYZ closes at 200, the loss is $11,400. There is no limit.
Buy 1 ABC 25 put at 1.50 (cost: $150).
- ABC closes at 28: there is no point in selling at 25 what is worth 28. Loss: $150.
- ABC closes at 23.50: the right is worth 1.50, equal to the premium. Breakeven: 25 − 1.50.
- ABC closes at 18: the right is worth 7. Result: (7 − 1.50) × 100 = + $550. At best, ABC falls to zero: (25 − 1.50) × 100 = $2,350.
Sell 1 ABC 35 put at 3 (premium received: $300).
- ABC closes at 37: the put is not exercised. Gain: $300, the maximum.
- ABC closes at 28: the seller must buy at 35 shares that are worth 28, a loss of 7, less the premium: (3 − 7) × 100 = − $400.
- At worst, ABC falls to zero: he pays 35 for a worthless security, less the premium: (35 − 3) × 100 = $3,200. The loss is large, but capped, because a stock cannot go below zero.
- Breakeven: "call up, put down." Call: strike plus premium. Put: strike minus premium. The breakeven is the same for the buyer and for the seller.
- The buyer has a right and risks his premium; the seller has an obligation and gains at most his premium. The maximum gain of one is the maximum loss of the other.
- "Unlimited" applies only to the call: the buyer's gain, the uncovered seller's loss. For a put, the maximum is always (strike − premium) × 100.
- Bullish: call buyer, put seller. Bearish: put buyer, call seller.
The premium always splits in two: what the option would be worth if it were exercised right now (intrinsic value), and what the market pays on top of that for the time remaining (time value).
- DEF trades at 67. The 70 put is worth 4.75. A put is in the money when the market price is below the strike: intrinsic value 70 − 67 = 3. Time value: 4.75 − 3 = 1.75.
- DEF trades at 67. The 65 put is worth 0.90. The market price is above the strike: out of the money. Intrinsic value 0 (never − 2). Time value: 0.90, the entire premium. The same option with a later expiration would be worth more, since it has only time value.
- DEF trades at 67. The 65 call is worth 3.40. A call in the money by 67 − 65 = 2. Time value: 3.40 − 2 = 1.40.
- On expiration day, DEF trades at 67. There is no time left: the 65 call is worth exactly 2, the 70 put exactly 3, and the 65 put and the 70 call are worth nothing.
With the stock price unchanged, an option therefore loses value with each passing day: time works against the buyer and for the seller.
Covered call. A customer owns 100 shares of DEF bought at 62 and sells 1 DEF 70 call at 3. He collects $300 and commits to delivering his shares at 70 if asked.
- DEF closes at 78: his shares are called away at 70. Gain: (70 − 62) + 3 = 11 per share, or $1,100. He does not benefit from the rise above 70: that is the price of the premium.
- DEF closes at 59: the call expires. He has lost 3 on the stock and gained 3 in premium. Breakeven: 62 − 3 = 59.
- DEF closes at 50: a loss of 12 on the stock, less the premium: (12 − 3) × 100 = $900. The premium cushions the decline; it does not eliminate it.
Protective put. A customer buys 100 shares of GHI at 84 and, to protect himself, 1 GHI 80 put at 2.50. It is insurance: he can always sell at 80.
- GHI closes at 60: he exercises and sells at 80. Loss: (84 − 80) + 2.50 = 6.50 per share, or $650, whatever happens below 80.
- GHI closes at 86.50: the put expires. A gain of 2.50 on the stock, a cost of 2.50 for the put. Breakeven: 84 + 2.50 = 86.50.
- GHI closes at 95: a gain of 11 on the stock, less the premium: (11 − 2.50) × 100 = $850. The gain remains unlimited.
The options account: FINRA Rule 2360
- Options Disclosure Document (ODD, "Characteristics and Risks of Standardized Options"): delivered at or before the time the account is approved for options.
- Due diligence on the customer (objectives, employment, income, net worth, liquid net worth, marital status, age, experience), then written approval by a Registered Options Principal (or a qualified principal) before the first order.
- Within 15 days after approval: the information collected is sent to the customer for verification, and the firm obtains the signed options agreement, in which the customer agrees to abide by the rules and by the position and exercise limits.
- Position and exercise limits: the maximum number of contracts on the same side of the market (long calls + short puts, or long puts + short calls) on the same underlying.
- Uncovered option writing requires specific procedures and approval, and a special risk disclosure statement.
- The Options Clearing Corporation (OCC) issues and guarantees listed options; on exercise, it assigns a member firm that is short, which in turn assigns one of its customers by a fair method.
Options are a leveraged product, in which you can lose your entire stake in a few weeks, and more if you write uncovered. An ordinary account therefore does not allow options trading: a separate approval is required, preceded by a risk document and followed by a signed agreement. The order of the steps is what the exam tests.
Mr. Dumas, a customer for one year, wants to buy calls.
- The agent gives him the ODD, the standard document on the characteristics and risks of options, no later than the time the account is approved for options.
- The agent collects the information on his situation, his objectives, and his experience.
- The Registered Options Principal approves the account in writing, on Tuesday, June 3, specifying the level of trading permitted (purchases only, for example).
- Mr. Dumas places his first order on June 4. This is permitted: the approval is in place. The signed agreement is not required before the first order.
- The firm must receive the signed options agreement within 15 days of approval: no later than June 18. Otherwise, Mr. Dumas can no longer open new positions; he can only close out the ones he has.
The usual trap: believing that the signed agreement must come before the first order. What must come before it is the ODD and the principal's approval. The Administrator, for its part, does not approve any account.
Margin: Regulation T and FINRA Rule 4210
Buying on margin means buying securities with money borrowed from your broker-dealer. The customer puts up part of the price; the firm lends the rest and holds the securities as collateral. The loan bears interest. The appeal is leverage: with $10,000, the customer controls $20,000 of stock, and his gains and his losses alike are doubled. If the stock rises 20%, to $24,000, he gains $4,000 on a stake of $10,000, or 40%. If it falls 20%, to $16,000, he loses 40% of his stake, and he still owes the firm $10,000.
Three levels of rules are stacked on top of one another, and the exam asks you to know who sets what:
| Requirement | Set by | Level | When |
|---|---|---|---|
| Initial margin | Federal Reserve Board (Regulation T) | 50% | At purchase |
| Minimum equity | FINRA Rule 4210 | $2,000 | To open a margin position |
| Maintenance margin | FINRA Rule 4210 | 25% long · 30% short | As long as the position exists |
| "House" requirements | The firm | Equal or higher | At any time, without notice |
Three terms to know. The debit balance is what the customer owes the firm. Equity is what truly belongs to the customer: the value of the securities minus his debt. A margin call is the firm's demand that the customer restore the equity when it has fallen too low, by depositing funds or securities; if the customer does not, the firm sells.
- Regulation T (Federal Reserve Board): initial deposit of 50% for the purchase of marginable stock. Payment is due within a payment period: the standard settlement cycle plus 2 business days. Otherwise, the position is liquidated and the account is frozen for 90 days.
- FINRA Rule 4210: minimum equity of $2,000 to buy on margin (or the full purchase price if it is less); maintenance margin of 25% of market value for long positions, 30% for short positions. Firms often set higher "house" requirements.
- Equity (long account) = market value − debit balance. The debit does not move when the price falls; it is the equity that absorbs the loss.
- Maintenance call threshold (long account) = debit balance ÷ 0.75.
- Short account (short sale): equity = credit balance − market value of the securities sold short. The credit balance (sale proceeds + deposit) does not move; equity falls when the price rises. Maintenance call threshold (30%) = credit balance ÷ 1.30: above that market value, equity drops below 30%.
- Documents: credit agreement (terms of the loan) and hypothecation agreement (the securities serve as collateral), both mandatory; loan consent (lending the securities to third parties), optional. NASAA requires the written margin agreement promptly after the first transaction.
- Margin disclosure statement (FINRA Rule 2264), delivered no later than account opening: you can lose more than your deposit; the firm can sell the securities without notice; the customer does not choose which securities are sold; the firm can raise its requirements without notice; no extension of time is owed.
- The firm may not re-pledge (rehypothecate) more than 140% of the customer's debit balance; the excess must be segregated.
- Not marginable at purchase: options (premium paid in full), new issues for 30 days.
First purchase of $3,400: Reg T calls for 50%, or $1,700, but the $2,000 minimum applies: deposit of $2,000. First purchase of $1,500: the customer pays the $1,500 in full. First purchase of $6,000: Reg T calls for $3,000, above the minimum: deposit of $3,000.
A customer buys 800 shares at $30 on margin, or $24,000.
- At purchase. Reg T: she deposits 50%, or $12,000. The firm lends $12,000: that is the debit balance. Equity: 24,000 − 12,000 = $12,000 (50%).
- The price rises to $36. Market value $28,800; debit unchanged at $12,000; equity $16,800, or 58.3%.
- The price falls to $25. Value $20,000; debit $12,000; equity $8,000, or 8,000 ÷ 20,000 = 40%. Above 25%: no call.
- The price falls to $19. Value $15,200; debit $12,000; equity $3,200, or 21.1%. The minimum is 25% × 15,200 = $3,800. The shortfall is 3,800 − 3,200 = $600: that is the amount of the margin call.
- At what price is the call triggered? When equity is exactly 25% of the value, the debit is 75% of it: value = 12,000 ÷ 0.75 = $16,000, or $20 per share.
The debit does not move when the price moves: remember that, and all the calculations follow from it. Checking the threshold: at $16,000, equity is 4,000, and 4,000 ÷ 16,000 = 25%. The result does not always come out round: with a debit of $7,000, the threshold would be 7,000 ÷ 0.75 = $9,333.
Selling short (a short sale) is the opposite bet. The customer thinks a stock will fall: he borrows it through his firm, sells it right away, and will have to buy it back later to return it. If the price has fallen, he buys it back for less and keeps the difference. If the price has risen, he buys it back for more and loses, without limit since a price can rise indefinitely. A short sale is always made in a margin account. The sale proceeds stay locked up at the firm, together with the customer's deposit: this is the credit balance, which does not move. What moves is the cost of buying the stock back.
A customer sells short 600 shares at $50.
- At the sale. Proceeds: $30,000. Reg T deposit of 50%: $15,000. Credit balance: $45,000. Equity: 45,000 − 30,000 = $15,000 (50% of the value sold).
- The price falls to $40. Buying back would cost $24,000. Equity: 45,000 − 24,000 = $21,000. The customer is ahead.
- The price rises to $60. Equity: 45,000 − 36,000 = $9,000, or 25% of 36,000. Below the 30% minimum.
- Amount of the call at $60. Minimum: 30% × 36,000 = $10,800. The shortfall is 10,800 − 9,000 = $1,800.
- Threshold. When equity is exactly 30% of the value, the credit is 130% of it: value = 45,000 ÷ 1.30 = $34,615, or $57.69 per share.
Compare the two accounts: in a long account, it is the debit that is fixed and you divide by 0.75; in a short account, it is the credit that is fixed and you divide by 1.30. The long account is hurt by a decline, the short account by a rise.
Two more concepts from the list. Hypothecation is the pledge: the customer gives his securities as collateral for the loan, through the agreement he signs. Rehypothecation is the firm, in turn, pledging those securities to a bank to finance the loan it is making. The 140% limit prevents the firm from pledging more of the customer's securities than necessary: for a debit of $12,000, it may rehypothecate at most 12,000 × 1.40 = $16,800 of securities; the rest is set aside. As for the payment deadline: since May 2024, stock trades settle on the next business day (T+1); a purchase made on a Monday must therefore be paid for no later than Thursday, that is, T+3.
- A customer receives a margin call and asks for three more days; the firm sells his securities the next day without warning him. Permitted The firm can sell without notice and owes no extension; the margin disclosure statement told him so.
- The same customer demands that the firm sell his A shares rather than his B shares. The firm is not required to It chooses which securities to sell.
- An agent lets a customer buy on margin for two months before having him sign the margin agreement. Dishonest practice NASAA: written agreement obtained promptly after the first transaction.
- An agent tells a customer: "On margin, you can't lose more than your deposit." False You can lose more than the deposit.
- A state wants to impose a 60% initial margin on SEC-registered broker-dealers. Not possible Margin requirements are federal; the state cannot add to them.
- A customer wants to buy calls on margin. Not possible The premium on a purchased option is paid in full.
- A customer opens a margin account to buy $1,800 of stock. He pays $1,800 Below $2,000, the full price is due: the firm lends nothing.
Until June 3, 2026, a pattern day trader (four or more day trades in five business days) had to maintain equity of $25,000. Since June 4, 2026, FINRA Rule 4210 has replaced that rule with intraday margin requirements; firms may phase in their implementation until October 20, 2027 (FINRA Regulatory Notice 26-10). An older question may still expect "$25,000."
Privacy: SEC Regulation S-P
To open an account, the customer has handed over his most sensitive information: his identity, his Social Security number, his income, his net worth. Regulation S-P (the "P" stands for privacy) governs what the firm does with that data, around three obligations: tell the customer what it does with it (the notices), let him refuse to have it passed on to outside third parties (the opt-out), and protect it against theft, from collection through disposal. An affiliate is a company in the same corporate group; a nonaffiliated third party is an outside company, for example a loan broker or a marketing company.
- Nonpublic personal information: financial information that can identify a person (balances, transactions, account number, customer lists), excluding what is publicly available.
- Consumer: an individual who obtains a financial product or service for personal purposes. Customer: a consumer with whom the relationship is ongoing.
- Initial notice (the initial privacy notice) to the customer, no later than when the relationship is established; annual notice during the relationship, with an exception when the firm shares only in the permitted cases and has not changed its practices.
- Opt-out: before sharing with an outside company (a nonaffiliated third party), the firm gives notice and a reasonable period in which to refuse (the rule's example: 30 days). Exceptions: carrying out a requested transaction, service providers under a confidentiality agreement, legal obligations and regulators.
- Safeguards rule: written policies that include administrative, technical, and physical safeguards.
- Disposal rule: disposal of information by means that prevent any unauthorized access.
- 2024 amendments: a written program for responding to incidents (incident response), and notification of individuals whose sensitive information was, or is reasonably likely to have been, accessed without authorization, as soon as practicable and no later than 30 days after becoming aware of it. Service providers notify the firm within 72 hours.
- An agent gives a friend, a mortgage broker, the list of his customers who hold a lot of cash. Violation Sharing with a nonaffiliated third party with no notice and no opportunity to opt out.
- The firm passes a customer's name and address to the company that prints and mails its statements, which is bound by a confidentiality agreement. Permitted A service provider performing a service for the firm.
- The Administrator, in the course of an investigation, requests a customer's statements. The firm provides them without asking for the customer's consent. Permitted Legal obligation and a regulator's request.
- A firm throws old new account forms into an open dumpster. Violation Disposal rule.
- An agent leaves his firm after copying his customers' account records onto a USB drive, Social Security numbers included. Violation This is nonpublic personal information, protected by the firm.
- A firm discovers on May 1st an intrusion into its customer files and notifies the affected individuals on May 20. On time As soon as practicable, and no later than 30 days after becoming aware of it.
Investment adviser communications
The adviser has its own disclosure obligations, heavier than the broker-dealer's because it is a fiduciary. The client must know before committing who the firm is, what it charges, and where its conflicts of interest lie: that is the purpose of the brochure. The 48-hour rule gives the client time to read it; the 5-day alternative gives the client the right to change his mind after reading it.
Brochure rule
- The IA delivers Form ADV Part 2 at least 48 hours before the contract is signed, or at signing if the client can terminate without penalty within 5 business days.
- Update delivered or offered each year, within 120 days after the end of the fiscal year.
- Not required for clients that are investment companies, or for impersonal advice costing less than $500 per year.
- An adviser gives his brochure to a prospect on Monday at 10 a.m.; she signs the contract on Wednesday at 3 p.m. More than 48 hours before signing: compliant.
- He delivers the brochure at signing, and the contract provides that the client can terminate without penalty within 5 business days. Compliant: this is the second branch of the rule.
- He delivers the brochure at signing, and the contract provides no right to terminate without penalty. Not compliant: neither the 48 hours nor the 5 days.
- The firm's fiscal year ends on December 31. It updates its Form ADV within 90 days (by the end of March) and delivers or offers the updated brochure to its clients within 120 days (by the end of April).
Performance fees
A fee tied to gains puts the adviser in the position of a gambler betting someone else's money: if the bet pays off, he takes his share; if it fails, only the client loses. He is therefore tempted to take too much risk. The law prohibits this form of compensation for the ordinary client, and allows it only for clients wealthy enough to understand the incentive and bear the loss.
- Compensation based on a share of capital gains is prohibited (USA § 102(c)), except for qualified clients (Advisers Act Rule 205-3).
- Thresholds in effect since June 29, 2026: at least $1.4M under the adviser's management, or a net worth of more than $2.7M, excluding the primary residence. Previous thresholds (2021 to 2026): $1.1M and $2.2M. The SEC adjusts them every five years; an exam question may still cite the old ones. Above all, remember the principle.
- A fee that is a percentage of assets under management, or that is based on the average value of the account over a period, is not a performance fee.
Adviser advertising
- No misleading testimonials, no cherry-picking of only the winning recommendations (a complete list covering at least one year is permitted, with a disclaimer), no tool presented as infallible, no "free" service that is not actually free, no reference to approval by the Administrator.
- An adviser charges 1% per year of the account's value, calculated each quarter. The account goes up, and so does the fee. Permitted for any client A percentage of assets: this is not a performance fee, even though it rises with gains.
- An adviser charges a schoolteacher "20% of the year's capital gains, nothing if the account goes down." Prohibited A share of capital gains, and the client is not a qualified client.
- The same fee is offered to a client who places $2M with the adviser. Permitted Qualified client by assets under management ($1.4M threshold).
- An adviser advertises: "Our charting method tells you with certainty when to buy." Misleading A tool presented as infallible.
- An adviser publishes last year's five recommendations that rose the most, without the others. Misleading Cherry-picking of only the winning recommendations.
If an answer choice contains "guarantee," "approved by the Administrator," "no risk," or "oral disclosure is sufficient," it almost always describes the prohibited practice. If it contains "fair and balanced," "prior written," "approved by a principal," or "retained by the firm," it almost always describes the proper conduct.
- "Registered," never "approved." No guarantee of results; "guaranteed" applies only to a payment guaranteed by a third party. A disclaimer cures nothing.
- Confirmation: capacity (agent or principal) and commission. Statement at least quarterly. Prospectus no later than with the confirmation.
- New account (FINRA 4512): name, residence, legal age, signature of a principal; trusted contact requested, not mandatory, with no authority.
- BD records: 6 years (blotters, ledgers, account records), 3 years (communications, orders, confirmations), 2 years accessible. IA: 5 years.
- FINRA 2210: more than 25 retail investors within 30 days = retail communication, prior approval by a principal; 25 or fewer = correspondence, supervision. Static: approval; interactive: supervision. Every business message is archived.
- Options: 1 contract = 100 shares; premium = intrinsic + time; breakeven call = strike + premium, put = strike − premium; unlimited loss for the uncovered short call.
- Options account: ODD no later than approval; written approval by the ROP before the first order; signed agreement within 15 days.
- Margin: 50% at purchase (Reg T, Fed); $2,000 minimum; maintenance 25% long, 30% short (FINRA); long threshold = debit ÷ 0.75; short threshold = credit ÷ 1.30. The firm can sell without notice.
- Regulation S-P: initial and annual notices, opt-out before sharing with a nonaffiliated third party, safeguarding and disposal, notification within 30 days.
- Adviser: brochure 48 hours before, or at signing with 5 business days to terminate; performance fee reserved for qualified clients.
Chapter quiz
Ethical practices and obligations
Fifteen questions, the largest section. Most describe a situation and ask whether it is permitted. Learn the exact conditions that make each practice acceptable, and the source of each rule: state (NASAA) or federal (SEC, FINRA).
What "ethics" means here
The word does not refer to morality in general. It refers to a specific list of behaviors that, once established, allow the Administrator to suspend or revoke a registration on the ground of "dishonest or unethical practices" (USA § 204). The agent is in a permanent position of conflict: he is paid when the customer buys or sells, he has access to the customer's money and information, and he knows more than the customer does. Each rule in this chapter closes off one of the ways to abuse that position. The exam outline sorts them into three families, which the chapter follows:
- Compensation: fees, commissions, markups, and their disclosure. The agent must neither overcharge nor hide what he earns.
- Customer funds and securities: custody, discretion, authorizations, standard of care. The agent must neither help himself to the customer's assets nor decide for the customer without being authorized to.
- Conflicts of interest and unlawful activities: excessive trading, loans, sharing in profits, insider trading, selling away, manipulation, outside accounts, exploitation of vulnerable persons.
For each practice, ask three questions. Is it always prohibited (guaranteeing against loss, manipulating a price)? Is it permitted on a condition, and exactly which one (a writing? from whom? before or after?)? Or does it simply have to be disclosed? Most wrong answers on the exam offer the right practice with the wrong condition: oral consent instead of written, the customer's consent without the firm's, notice after the fact instead of before.
| Source | Level | What it governs |
|---|---|---|
| NASAA, 1983 Statement of Policy | State | Dishonest practices of broker-dealers and agents |
| NASAA, 1997 Statement of Policy | State | Sales of fund shares |
| NASAA, 2016 Model Act | State | Vulnerable adults |
| NASAA, Model Rule 102(a)(4)-1 | State | Practices of advisers and IARs |
| SEC, Regulation Best Interest | Federal | Broker-dealer recommendations to retail customers |
| FINRA Rules 2111, 2121 | Federal (SRO) | Suitability; prices and commissions |
| Exchange Act § 28(e) | Federal | Soft dollars |
| Uniform Prudent Investor Act | State model law | Investments by trustees |
Regulation Best Interest (SEC Rule 15l-1)
This is the standard of care, the level of conduct a broker-dealer owes to retail customers, in effect since 2020. Before it, a recommendation only had to be suitable, meaning appropriate for the customer. Between two suitable products, the agent could therefore pick the one that paid him more. Reg BI closed that gap: the recommendation must be in the customer's best interest, and the agent cannot put his compensation first. It does not go as far as the adviser's fiduciary duty: it applies at the time of the recommendation, with no obligation to monitor the account afterward, and it accepts that the agent is paid by commission.
When a broker-dealer or its agent recommends to a retail customer a transaction, a strategy, or a type of account (including a rollover, the transfer of an employer retirement plan into an IRA), it must act in the customer's best interest at the time of the recommendation, without placing its financial or other interest ahead of the customer's. A retail customer is a natural person (or that person's legal representative) who uses the recommendation for personal, family, or household purposes.
| Obligation | Content |
|---|---|
| Disclosure | In writing, at or before the recommendation: capacity (the firm is acting as a broker-dealer), fees and costs, type and scope of services, limits on the product range, and all material facts about conflicts of interest |
| Care | Reasonable diligence, care, and skill: understand the risks, rewards, and costs; have a reasonable basis to believe the recommendation is in the best interest of this customer given the customer's profile; and that a series of transactions is not excessive |
| Conflict of Interest | Written policies to identify and at a minimum disclose, or eliminate, conflicts; mitigate those that give an associated person an incentive to put his own interest first; eliminate sales contests, quotas, bonuses, and non-cash compensation tied to the sale of specific securities within a limited period |
| Compliance | Written policies and procedures reasonably designed to achieve compliance with the rule as a whole |
- Form CRS (relationship summary): a short summary delivered to retail customers no later than the first recommendation, the first order, or the opening of the account: services, fees, conflicts, standard of conduct, disciplinary history.
- A BD that is not also an investment adviser, and its agents, must not hold themselves out under the title "adviser" or "advisor": this is presumed to violate the obligation to disclose their capacity.
- Reg BI creates no obligation of ongoing monitoring of the account and does not apply to institutional customers.
| Broker-dealer and agent | Investment adviser and IAR | |
|---|---|---|
| Standard | Best interest (Reg BI) for retail customers; suitability (FINRA 2111) for others | Fiduciary duty: loyalty and care |
| When | At each recommendation | Throughout the relationship, with appropriate monitoring |
| Conflicts | Disclose, mitigate, sometimes eliminate | Eliminate or fully disclose, with informed consent |
| Typical compensation | Commission, markup | Fees |
Mr. Lee, age 58, wants to invest $100,000 for his retirement. His agent is choosing between two equity funds with comparable objectives and risks. Fund A charges 0.6% in annual expenses and pays the agent a commission of $1,000. Fund B charges 1.4% a year and pays him $4,000.
- Care. The agent must understand both products and compare their costs: cost is always a factor. With equal features, he cannot reasonably believe that the more expensive one is in Mr. Lee's best interest.
- Conflict of interest. The gap in commissions is an incentive to recommend B. The firm must have policies to identify and mitigate it.
- Disclosure. Disclosing the commission is not enough to make the recommendation of B compliant: disclosure does not replace the care obligation.
- Conclusion. Recommending B because it pays more violates Reg BI. Recommending B would be defensible only if it offered Mr. Lee a real advantage that A does not have.
Reg BI does not require the cheapest product in absolute terms: it requires not putting your own interest ahead of the customer's, and being able to justify the choice.
- A firm runs a contest: the agent who sells the most shares of a given fund this quarter wins a trip. Prohibited A sales contest tied to a specific security within a limited period: it must be eliminated, not merely disclosed.
- A firm pays an annual bonus based on the total assets each agent services, across all products. Not covered by the ban Not tied to a specific security; the conflict is disclosed and mitigated.
- An agent recommends that a customer roll over her 401(k) plan into an IRA at his firm. Reg BI applies A recommendation of an account type or a rollover is covered.
- A customer places a buy order on his own, with no recommendation at all. Reg BI does not apply It is triggered by a recommendation.
- An agent recommends a bond to the treasury department of an insurance company. Reg BI does not apply Institutional customer: FINRA 2111 suitability is what applies.
- An agent of a firm that is only a broker-dealer prints "Financial Advisor" on his business cards. Presumed violation He misleads about the capacity in which he acts.
- Six months after a recommendation, the security has fallen and the agent has not called the customer back. Not a Reg BI violation No ongoing monitoring obligation, unless the firm has agreed to one.
Suitability: FINRA Rule 2111
Suitability remains the standard for customers who are not retail customers, and its three-tier logic also structures the care obligation of Reg BI. Each tier answers a question: is this product suitable for anyone? Is it suitable for this customer? And are the transactions, taken together, suitable for this customer?
- Reasonable-basis: after reasonable diligence, understand the product and believe it is suitable for at least some investors. Recommending a product you do not understand already violates the rule.
- Customer-specific: a blanket recommendation, the same recommendation sent to every customer without regard to their situation, violates this obligation. The firm must believe that the recommendation is suitable for this customer, given the customer's investment profile: age, other investments, financial situation and needs, tax status, objectives, experience, time horizon (how long before the customer needs the money), liquidity needs (what the customer must be able to turn into cash quickly), and risk tolerance.
- Quantitative: a series of transactions, even if each is suitable on its own, must not be excessive. Indicators: turnover rate, cost-equity ratio, in-and-out trading.
- Institutional customer: the customer-specific obligation is satisfied if the firm reasonably believes the customer can evaluate the risks independently and the customer states that it is exercising independent judgment.
- At the state level (NASAA 1983): recommending without reasonable grounds, after reasonable inquiry into the customer's objectives, financial situation, and needs, is a dishonest practice.
- Reasonable-basis. A firm launches a complex structured product. An agent sells it without having understood how its return is calculated. Even if the product happened to suit his customer, the agent violated the rule: he could not have had a reasonable basis to recommend it to anyone.
- Customer-specific. Mrs. Roy, age 76, lives on her pension and on $150,000 in savings that she needs for her everyday expenses. Her agent, who knows the security well, recommends that she put half of it into the stock of a small biotechnology company. The product may suit a young, wealthy investor; it does not suit this profile (age, need for liquidity, low risk tolerance).
- Quantitative. Mr. Vidal's account has an average value of $100,000. In one year, his agent, who in practice controls the account, has it buy $600,000 of securities, and the commissions total $22,000. The turnover rate is 600,000 ÷ 100,000 = 6: the portfolio was turned over six times. The cost-equity ratio is 22,000 ÷ 100,000 = 22%: the account had to earn 22% during the year just to cover its costs. Each purchase, taken alone, might have seemed suitable; the series is not. That is churning.
Two clarifications. In-and-out trading means buying a security and quickly selling it, then reinvesting the proceeds in another security, and so on: it is the usual signature of churning. And the customer's consent does not protect the agent: a customer who "approved" each trade on the agent's recommendation may still have been the victim of excessive trading.
Prices and commissions: FINRA Rule 2121
This is the first family in the exam outline: compensation. A broker-dealer is paid in two ways depending on its role (chapter 2): a commission when it acts as agent, a markup (on a sale) or a markdown (on a purchase) when it acts as principal. In both cases, the rule is the same: the price must be fair. The commission is visible on the confirmation. The markup, by contrast, is buried in the price: that is where the risk of abuse is greatest, hence a dedicated policy.
- The price of a principal transaction must be reasonably related to the prevailing market price; the commission on an agency transaction must be reasonable.
- The 5% policy is a guide, not a rule: a markup of 5% or less may be unfair, and a higher markup may be justified.
- The markup is measured from the market price; absent other evidence, the dealer's contemporaneous cost is the best indication of it.
- Relevant factors: type of security, availability in the market, price of the security, amount of the transaction, disclosure, the firm's usual pattern of markups, the nature of its business. Disclosure alone does not justify an excessive price.
- The policy does not apply to securities sold at the public offering price of a prospectus (new issues, fund shares).
- Markup. A dealer sells a customer 1,000 shares at $21.00. The prevailing market price, as shown by what the dealer itself just paid another dealer, is $20.00. Markup: 21 − 20 = $1 per share, or 1 ÷ 20 = 5%. The percentage is calculated on the market price, not on the price paid by the customer.
- The old-inventory trap. The dealer had bought these shares at $12 two years ago. Its markup is not 21 − 12 = 9. The starting point is the current market ($20): its gain on the inventory is a market profit, not a markup. Conversely, if it had paid $25 for them, it could not sell at $26 and call it a 4% markup: relative to the $20 market, it is 30%.
- Markdown. A customer sells 500 shares to the dealer. The market is at $10.00; the dealer pays $9.60. Markdown: 0.40 ÷ 10 = 4%.
- Commission. In an agency trade, a customer buys $8,000 of securities and pays a $200 commission: 200 ÷ 8,000 = 2.5%.
Are these percentages fair? It depends on the factors. A 5% markup on a very liquid stock, for a $21,000 order executed with no effort, may be found excessive. A 6% markup on a small, scarce bond that is hard to find, for a $600 order, may be justified. Hence the phrase to remember: a guide, not a rule.
- A firm applies a 5% markup to all its transactions, saying that "5% is always permitted." False 5% is not an automatically permitted ceiling; each price is assessed according to the factors.
- A firm warns its customers in writing that it applies a 12% markup. Not enough Disclosure does not by itself justify an excessive price.
- A firm charges $75 to transfer an account to a competitor, a fee published in its fee schedule. Permitted A reasonable, disclosed service charge.
- A firm charges $900 for the same transfer, without having announced it. Dishonest practice An unreasonable, undisclosed charge.
- An agent sells fund shares at the public offering price, including a 5.75% front-end sales load. Outside the 5% policy A security sold at the offering price set by a prospectus.
- A dealer that is the only one trading a security sells it "at the market price." Dishonest practice Saying "at the market" when there is no market other than the one the firm itself makes.
The customer's account
Second family: what the agent may do in the account. The principle is that the account belongs to the customer and that each transaction comes from the customer's decision. The agent proposes, the customer decides. All the rules in this section organize the exceptions: when, and on what conditions, someone other than the customer may decide.
Discretion is the power to decide without consulting the customer before each order. You recognize it by the three "A"s: the agent chooses the Asset (which security), the Amount (how much), or the Action (buy or sell). If he chooses only the time or the price, while the customer has set the three A's, it is not discretion. A trading authorization (in everyday English, a power of attorney) is the document by which the customer authorizes a third party to place orders in the account: limited (orders only) or full (orders and withdrawals).
| Practice | Rule |
|---|---|
| Unauthorized trading | Prohibited. The customer's order or consent is required before each transaction, even one "in the customer's interest." |
| Discretion (agent of a BD) | Prior written authorization. Without it, the agent may decide only the time and the price, never the security (asset), the quantity (amount), or the direction (action). |
| Discretion (IA) | Oral authorization accepted for the first 10 business days after the first transaction, then a writing is required. |
| Order from a third party (spouse, child, attorney) | Prohibited without a written trading authorization from the customer. |
| Churning | Transactions excessive in size or frequency in view of the resources and character of the account. |
| Fictitious accounts | Opening or maintaining an account with false information to allow transactions that would otherwise be prohibited: dishonest practice. |
The agent has no written discretionary authorization. May he execute?
- "Buy 300 XYZ today, at whatever time and price you think best." Security, quantity, and direction set by the customer; the agent chooses the time and the price. Yes.
- "Buy me some XYZ, as much as you think is reasonable." The quantity is left to the agent. No, not without a writing.
- "I have $20,000 to put into a good technology stock: you choose." The security is left to the agent. No.
- "Do whatever is needed with my XYZ depending on tomorrow's earnings." The direction (hold, sell, add) is left to the agent. No.
- "Sell 200 XYZ if the price reaches 60." Everything is set, including the price: a simple limit order. Yes.
In cases 2 to 4, the agent of a broker-dealer needs written authorization before the first order, and his firm must have accepted the account as discretionary. An investment adviser, by contrast, could act on oral authorization for 10 business days.
- A security's price is collapsing; the agent cannot reach his customer and sells to limit the loss. Violation Unauthorized trading, even if the sale avoided a larger loss.
- A customer's wife calls: "My husband is traveling, sell his 500 shares of ABC." The account is in the husband's name alone, with no power of attorney. Refuse Order from a third party without a written trading authorization.
- Same call, but the account is a joint account of both spouses. Execute She is an owner of the account: each owner may give orders.
- The attorney of a hospitalized customer presents a signed and notarized general power of attorney. Execute After the firm has placed the document in the file.
- An agent, with no discretionary authorization, buys for a customer and calls him afterward to "confirm." The customer approves. Violation Consent must come before the order; ratification after the fact does not cure it.
- An agent opens a second account in the name of a customer's mother, with false information, so that the customer can exceed a subscription limit. Violation Fictitious account.
The customer's money and securities
The agent is within arm's reach of his customers' assets and has a relationship of trust with them: it is the ideal position from which to ask them for a favor, and that is why the law prohibits almost any mixing of his personal affairs with theirs. The logic common to this table: the customer's money and securities go to the firm, never to the agent; they stay separate from the firm's; and the agent has no personal financial interest in a customer's account, except with the written consent of the two parties who watch over it.
| Practice | Rule |
|---|---|
| Borrowing / lending | Borrowing money or securities from a customer, or lending them to one: dishonest practice. The 1983 NASAA Statement of Policy (2.a) prohibits it for the agent with no written exception. The answer expected on the exam nevertheless allows borrowing from a customer that is an institution in the business of lending (a bank): this exception comes from the model rule for advisers (102(a)(4)-1) and from FINRA Rule 3240. The latter adds limited cases (immediate family, a personal relationship or a business relationship outside the brokerage relationship), under the firm's written procedures and with its prior approval. |
| Agent as custodian | The agent keeps neither money, nor securities, nor a signed stock power belonging to a customer. Everything goes to the firm without delay. |
| Commingling | Mixing the customer's funds or securities with the firm's or with your own: prohibited. Fully paid securities are segregated. |
| Sharing in an account | The agent may share in gains and losses with the written authorization of the customer and of the BD; FINRA also requires sharing in proportion to his contribution. |
| Hypothecation | Pledging the customer's securities: written consent obtained promptly after the first transaction, within the limits of SEC rules. |
| Margin | Written margin agreement obtained promptly after the first transaction. |
| Guaranteeing against loss | Prohibited, including repurchasing the security at a guaranteed price or reimbursing a loss out of your own pocket. |
| Delivery and payment | Repeated, unreasonable, and unjustifiable delays in delivering securities or paying out balances are a dishonest practice. |
Vocabulary: commingling is mixing customers' assets with those of the firm or the agent in the same account or the same vault; fully paid securities are those the customer has paid for in full, which the firm may neither use nor pledge. A stock power is the signed document that allows ownership of a stock certificate to be transferred: an agent who holds one signed in blank can sell the customer's securities.
An agent and his customer want to invest together in a joint account. The customer contributes $30,000, the agent $10,000.
- Authorizations. The written consent of the customer and that of the broker-dealer are required. One without the other is not enough.
- Proportion. The agent contributed 10,000 ÷ 40,000 = 25% of the capital. Under FINRA, he shares in gains and losses in that proportion.
- Result. The account gains $8,000: $2,000 for the agent, $6,000 for the customer. It loses $4,000: $1,000 for the agent, $3,000 for the customer.
What is prohibited: an arrangement in which the agent would take half the gains without contributing anything, or would bear all the losses (that would be a guarantee). Do not confuse this with splitting commissions, which is done between agents of the same firm, or with the adviser's performance fee.
- An agent borrows $5,000 from a customer who is also his aunt. Dishonest practice under the NASAA list No written exception for family in the 1983 text. FINRA allows the immediate-family case under the firm's procedures; if the question refers to NASAA or "the USA," answer prohibited.
- An agent gets a car loan from the bank that is a customer of his firm, on the terms offered to the public. Permitted An institution in the business of lending.
- An agent lends $2,000 to a customer to cover a margin call. Dishonest practice Lending to a customer is covered just as borrowing is.
- A customer gives the agent a check made payable to the agent "to speed things up." The agent deposits it in his own account and wires the amount to the firm. Violation Commingling, and holding customer funds. The check must be payable to the firm.
- A customer leaves for three months abroad and leaves his certificates and a signed stock power with his agent, "just in case." Violation The agent keeps neither securities nor a stock power.
- After a $3,000 loss caused by his bad advice, an agent offers to reimburse the customer out of his own pocket to avoid a complaint. Violation Guarantee against loss; and the complaint must be forwarded to the firm.
- A firm corrects, through its error account, an order it executed incorrectly (a purchase of 1,000 shares instead of 100). Permitted Correcting the firm's own execution error is not guaranteeing the customer against a market loss.
The 1983 NASAA list
Statement of Policy on Dishonest or Unethical Business Practices of Broker-Dealers and Agents. It underlies the "dishonest or unethical practices" ground for sanctions (USA § 204). In addition to the above, it covers, for the broker-dealer:
- a price not reasonably related to the market, or an unreasonable commission or profit;
- failing to deliver the prospectus no later than the date of the confirmation;
- unreasonable and inequitable service charges (transfer, safekeeping, collection);
- offering to buy or sell at a stated price without being prepared to do so;
- saying a security is offered "at the market" when no market exists other than the one made or controlled by the firm;
- any manipulation (see below);
- publishing a transaction or a quotation that is not bona fide;
- misleading advertising or sales presentations;
- failing to disclose that the firm controls the issuer, is controlled by it, or is under common control with it, before the transaction, in writing no later than the completion of the transaction (at or before completion);
- failing to make a bona fide public offering of all the securities allotted to it: keeping part of a hot issue for itself or for insiders (free-riding and withholding);
- failing to furnish information owed to the customer, or failing to respond to a written complaint.
For the agent, the list adds: borrowing from, lending to, or holding the assets of a customer; selling away (transactions not recorded on the books of the BD, without its prior written authorization); fictitious accounts; sharing in an account without both written authorizations; splitting commissions with a person who is not a registered agent of the same BD or of a BD under common control. The list is not exhaustive: forgery, embezzlement, nondisclosure, or any deceptive practice are also grounds.
Selling away deserves an explanation, because it is one of the most common violations in real life. An agent may sell securities only through his firm, which supervises the transaction and records it on its books. If he sells his customers, "on the side," an investment his firm knows nothing about (shares in a friend's company, a promissory note, a structured real estate investment), nobody is checking anything, and yet the customer believes he is dealing with a supervised professional. It does not matter that the agent is not paid, that the investment is honest, or that the customer is delighted: without the firm's prior written authorization, it is a violation.
- An agent offers three customers the chance to invest in his brother-in-law's restaurant, through shares in a company, without telling his firm and without a commission. Selling away A securities transaction off the firm's books, without prior written authorization.
- The same agent first describes the transaction in writing to his firm, which authorizes it in writing and records it on its books. Permitted
- A firm that is a member of the syndicate for a hot issue sets aside part of its allotment for its officers and their families. Dishonest practice No bona fide public offering of all the securities allotted.
- A customer sends a letter of complaint; the agent puts it in his drawer, hoping the customer will calm down. Dishonest practice A written complaint is forwarded to the firm, which responds to it.
- A firm displays a bid of $8 for a security but refuses to buy when a seller shows up at that price. Dishonest practice A quotation it is not prepared to honor.
- An agent knows that his firm will execute, within the hour, a buy order for 400,000 shares for a pension fund. He buys 1,000 shares for himself just before. Front running
- A firm sells its customers the bonds of a company in which it holds 60% of the equity, without telling them. Dishonest practice A control relationship must be disclosed before the transaction, in writing no later than its completion.
Market manipulation
A market price is supposed to result from real buyers meeting real sellers. To manipulate is to fabricate a false picture of that meeting (volume that does not exist, demand that does not exist, a price that is not the market's) in order to lead others to buy or sell. What all the techniques in the table have in common is the intent to deceive about activity or price: the trades themselves may look ordinary.
| Practice | Description |
|---|---|
| Wash trade | A purchase and sale with no real change of ownership, to create volume |
| Matched orders | Orders of the same size, same price, and same time, entered in concert on opposite sides |
| Painting the tape | A series of transactions among accomplices to give an appearance of activity |
| Marking the close | Orders at the end of the trading session to influence the closing price |
| Spoofing | Orders placed with no intention of letting them execute, to mislead about supply and demand, then canceled |
| Layering | A variant of spoofing: several sham orders stacked at different prices on the same side, to push the price and execute on the other side |
| Pump and dump | Driving a security up with false or exaggerated claims, then selling |
| Bear raid, rumors | Driving a security down through concerted selling or false news |
| Capping, pegging | Keeping a price from rising or from moving, for example to protect an options position |
The following are not manipulation: arbitrage, lawful short selling, a good-faith agency cross, and regulated stabilization during a public offering. Front running: trading for yourself or for the firm ahead of a large customer order you know about; prohibited.
- Two friends agree: on Monday at 10 a.m., one enters an order to buy 5,000 shares of a small company at $3.00, the other an order to sell 5,000 shares at the same price. They do it again every day. The displayed volume attracts other buyers. Orders of the same size, same price, same time, in concert: matched orders, in a series that paints a sham picture of activity (painting the tape).
- An investor buys and sells the same security between his own two accounts. The real owner does not change: wash trade.
- A trader places a bid for 50,000 shares just below the market price, with no intention of buying, to create the impression of strong demand; the price rises, he sells his own shares, then cancels his buy orders. Spoofing. If he stacks several sham orders at different prices, layering.
- A portfolio manager whose bonus depends on the quarter-end closing price buys heavily in the last two minutes of the session. Marking the close.
- A group buys a stock at a few cents, spreads false news of a giant contract on social media, then sells to those who rush in. Pump and dump.
By contrast: buying a security in New York and selling it at the same moment at a higher price on another market, to profit from a real price difference, is arbitrage, which is perfectly lawful. And an underwriter that supports the price of a new issue under the conditions disclosed in the prospectus is engaged in stabilization.
Insider trading
The market rests on the idea that all investors have access to the same information at the same time. Someone who trades knowing a decisive fact that others do not know, and that he obtained through a position of trust, is stealing from his counterparties: they would not have sold, or not at that price, had they known. The rule is summed up as disclose or abstain: as long as the information is not public, you refrain from trading on it and from passing it on.
- Elements: information that is material (a reasonable investor would consider it important) and nonpublic (not yet disseminated to the market), used to trade or passed on in breach of a duty of trust.
- Those liable: the classic insider (officer, employee, outside adviser such as a lawyer or accountant); the tipper who passes the information on and the tippee who trades knowing where it came from; a person who misappropriates information entrusted to him (misappropriation theory), even with no connection to the issuer.
- Federal sanctions: a civil penalty of up to three times the profit gained or the loss avoided; criminally, up to 20 years in prison and a $5 million fine for an individual ($25 million for an entity). Investors who traded at the same time on the opposite side (contemporaneous traders) have a private right of action. A firm that failed to prevent the fraud may also be sanctioned.
- BDs and advisers must have written procedures to prevent the misuse of inside information: information barriers between departments; a restricted list, the list circulated within the firm of securities that no one may trade or recommend any longer; a watch list, the confidential list, known only to compliance, of securities whose trading is being monitored.
- Conduct expected of the agent: do not trade, do not pass it on, report to the supervisor or to compliance.
The chief financial officer of Orion Pharma learns on Monday that his company will be acquired at a 40% premium. The public announcement is scheduled for Friday.
- The chief financial officer buys Orion shares on Tuesday. Classic insider: material, nonpublic information, used in breach of his duty to the company and its shareholders.
- He tells his brother, who buys on Wednesday. The CFO is the tipper, the brother the tippee: both are liable, including the CFO even if he did not buy himself.
- A lawyer at the law firm preparing the deal buys shares. She has no connection to Orion, but she misappropriates information entrusted to her firm: misappropriation.
- The brother calls his agent: "Buy me 2,000 Orion, my brother tells me they're being acquired on Friday." The agent must not execute without escalating the matter, must not buy for himself or for other customers, and reports immediately to his supervisor or to compliance.
- On Friday, the announcement is released. Once the information has been disseminated and absorbed by the market, anyone may trade.
Civil sanction: if the brother made $40,000, the penalty can reach 3 × 40,000 = $120,000, in addition to disgorgement of the profit. The same rule applies to a loss avoided: selling ahead of confidential bad news is the same offense.
What is not insider trading: buying on the basis of your own analysis of public documents, however brilliant; or overhearing a rumor by chance without knowing that it comes from an insider who breached a duty. When in doubt, the exam answer is always the same: do not trade, and report.
Fund shares: the 1997 NASAA list
Statement of Policy on Dishonest or Unethical Business Practices … in Connection with Investment Company Shares.
How a fund works, and what it costs
A mutual fund pools the money of thousands of investors and invests it in a professionally managed portfolio. Every evening, the value of the portfolio per share is calculated: this is the net asset value (NAV). The fund issues new shares on each purchase and buys them back on each sale (redemption), always at NAV. It is the product most widely sold to retail investors, and its difficulty lies in its charges, which take several forms:
- Sales load: the commission that compensates the seller. Paid at purchase, it is a front-end load: the price paid, the public offering price, is NAV plus the load. Paid at redemption if that occurs in the first few years, it is a back-end load or contingent deferred sales load (CDSC), which declines over time.
- 12b-1 fee: an annual charge taken from the fund's assets to pay for its distribution and marketing. The investor does not see it go by, but it reduces the return every year.
- Breakpoint: a dollar threshold at which the front-end load goes down.
| Share class | Front-end charge | Annual charges (12b-1) | Back-end charge | Generally suits |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Class A | Yes, reduced by breakpoints | Low | No, in general | A large amount held for a long time |
| Class B | No | High | Declining CDSC | A modest amount held long enough for the CDSC to expire |
| Class C | No | High, with no reduction | Low, generally in the first year only | A short holding period |
Assumed schedule for a fund, for illustration: a 5% load up to $99,999, 3.5% from $100,000 to $249,999, 2.5% above that. The load is calculated on the amount paid in.
- Mrs. Petit pays in $95,000. Load: 95,000 × 5% = $4,750. Amount actually invested: $90,250.
- If she paid in $100,000. Load: 100,000 × 3.5% = $3,500. Amount invested: $96,500. For $5,000 more, she would have $6,250 more at work, and would pay $1,250 less in charges.
- She has only $95,000 today, but will pay in $10,000 in six months. A letter of intent gives her the 3.5% rate from the first payment, since she commits to reaching $100,000 within 13 months.
- She already holds $80,000 of shares in the same fund family and adds $25,000. Through rights of accumulation, her total of $105,000 gives her the 3.5% rate on the new purchase.
The agent who takes in the $95,000 without saying any of this earns a higher commission at his customer's expense: this is the breakpoint sale. Splitting $180,000 among three fund families at $60,000 each, with no diversification reason, produces the same effect and is judged the same way.
The following are dishonest practices under the 1997 list:
- failing to disclose all sales charges, including asset-based charges and deferred sales charges;
- saying a fund is "no-load" if it has a front-end load, a contingent deferred sales load (CDSC), or 12b-1 and service fees that together exceed 0.25% of average net assets per year;
- failing to point out a breakpoint (a reduction of the load starting at a certain amount) or a letter of intent (a commitment to invest the amount over 13 months); rights of accumulation also allow the threshold to be reached by adding in holdings already owned; selling just below the threshold is a breakpoint sale;
- recommending a share class (A, B, C) without reasonable grounds to believe that its fee structure is suitable for the customer;
- having the customer hold several funds with similar objectives, or recommending a switch from one fund to another similar one, without justification in view of the charges;
- quoting the current yield without giving the average annual total return for 1, 5, and 10 years and explaining the difference;
- comparing a fund to a savings account or a CD (certificate of deposit, a bank time deposit) without stating that there is no FDIC insurance and what the differences in risk are;
- pointing to insurance or to the quality of the portfolio securities without explaining the other risks (interest rate, market, liquidity, currency);
- selling dividends: presenting a purchase just before the ex-dividend date as advantageous; or presenting a capital gains distribution as yield;
- projecting future performance, or relying on nonpublic information.
Delivering the prospectus is necessary, but it is not enough to prove that the customer was fully informed.
A fund has a NAV of $20.00 and is about to distribute $1.00 per share. An agent urges a customer to buy "before Friday, to get the dividend."
- The customer buys 1,000 shares at $20.00: $20,000.
- On the ex-dividend date, the fund pays $1.00 per share and its NAV drops by the same amount, to $19.00. The customer has 1,000 shares at $19 ($19,000) and $1,000 in dividends: still $20,000.
- But the dividend is taxable. The customer has turned $1,000 of his own capital into taxed income. He is worse off than before.
Presenting this purchase as a good deal is selling dividends. The honest advice would instead be to wait until the day after the ex-dividend date.
- An agent describes as "no-load" a fund that has no front-end charge but a declining 5% CDSC. Dishonest practice A fund with a CDSC is not "no-load."
- A fund has neither a load nor a CDSC, and a 12b-1 fee of 0.20%. The agent calls it "no-load." Permitted Below the 0.25% threshold.
- An agent recommends Class B shares to a customer who is investing $500,000 for fifteen years. Dishonest practice With that amount and that holding period, Class A with a breakpoint would cost less: no reasonable grounds for this class.
- An agent has a customer sell his growth fund, with a back-end charge, to buy the growth fund of another family, with a front-end charge. Dishonest practice A switch between similar funds without justification; the agent earns a new commission.
- An agent says that a government bond fund "pays 5%, it's like a CD, only better." Dishonest practice A comparison that states neither the absence of FDIC insurance nor the interest rate risk; current yield quoted alone.
- An agent delivers the prospectus and explains orally the front-end charge, the annual charges, and the breakpoint the customer is close to. Compliant
Protecting vulnerable adults
NASAA, Model Act to Protect Vulnerable Adults from Financial Exploitation (2016).
Older people hold a large share of savings and are the target of scams and abuse, often committed by someone close to them. The agent is well placed to notice: an unusual withdrawal, a new "friend" who speaks for the customer, a sudden change of beneficiary. In the past, he could do nothing: carrying out the instruction was his duty, and talking about the account to a third party breached confidentiality. The Model Act gives him three tools and protects him when he uses them in good faith: reporting (an obligation), notifying a third party (an option), and delaying the disbursement (an option for the firm). Financial exploitation covers wrongfully taking or using a person's funds, including by abusing a power of attorney or a guardianship.
- Eligible adult: a person age 65 or older, or an adult covered by the state's adult protective services statute.
- Qualified individual: an agent, an IAR, or a person serving in a supervisory, compliance, or legal capacity for a BD or an IA.
- Mandatory reporting: as soon as he reasonably believes that financial exploitation has occurred, has been attempted, or is being attempted, the qualified individual promptly notifies the Administrator and Adult Protective Services (APS).
- Third party: he may also notify a third party previously designated by the customer, unless that third party is himself suspected.
- Delay of disbursement: the firm may delay a disbursement if, after initiating an internal review, it reasonably believes that the disbursement would result in exploitation. It must then, within 2 business days, notify in writing all persons authorized on the account (except a suspect) and both agencies, then report on its review within 7 business days.
- Duration: 15 business days at most; extended to 25 business days in total if the Administrator or APS requests it; beyond that, by court order.
- Administrative and civil immunity for the report, the third-party notice, and the delay, if the person acted in good faith and with reasonable care. No criminal immunity.
- Records: the firm gives APS and law enforcement access to the relevant records.
| NASAA Model Act | FINRA Rule 2165 | |
|---|---|---|
| Persons protected | Age 65 or older, or an adult protected by state law | Age 65 or older, or age 18 and older with an impairment that prevents the person from protecting his or her own interests |
| Reporting to authorities | Mandatory | Not required by the rule |
| Measure | Delay of a disbursement | Temporary hold on a disbursement or a transaction |
| Duration | 15 business days, 25 at an agency's request | 15 business days, extendable by 10 by the firm, then by 30 if it has reported the matter to an authority |
| Person to notify | Third party designated by the customer | Trusted contact person (FINRA Rule 4512) and authorized persons, within 2 business days |
Mr. Hart, age 82, a customer for twenty years, asks on Monday, March 3 to wire $80,000 to a person he met recently, who comes with him and answers for him. His agent finds the request abnormal.
- Reporting. The agent, a qualified individual, reasonably believes exploitation is being attempted: he reports it to his firm, and the notice goes promptly to the Administrator and to Adult Protective Services. This is mandatory.
- Third party. Mr. Hart had designated his daughter as the person to notify. The firm may call her. If the suspected person were the daughter herself, it would not do so.
- Delay. The firm opens an internal review and decides to delay the wire. No later than Wednesday, March 5 (2 business days), it informs in writing the persons authorized on the account, except the suspect, as well as the Administrator and APS.
- Report. Within 7 business days, it reports the results of its review to both agencies.
- End of the delay. No later than 15 business days after March 3, that is, Monday, March 24. If the Administrator or APS requests it, up to 25 business days in total, that is, Monday, April 7. Beyond that, a court is needed.
The firm did not liquidate the account or block Mr. Hart's securities orders: the Model Act covers only the disbursement. If the suspicion turns out to be unfounded, the agent and the firm, who acted in good faith and with care, cannot be held liable either civilly or administratively.
Uniform Prudent Investor Act
A trust is property entrusted to a trustee, who manages it for beneficiaries. For a long time, the law judged the trustee investment by investment and imposed lists of "safe" securities: a single risky stock that fell exposed him to liability. This model law replaced that approach with modern portfolio theory: what matters is the balance of the whole, and a risky security can have its place in it if it is offset by the rest. An agent encounters it when his customer is a trustee.
A model law of the Uniform Law Commission, applicable to trustees and to fiduciaries who invest for others.
- Prudence is judged on the portfolio as a whole and the overall strategy, not security by security.
- The tradeoff between risk and return is central: objectives suited to the trust.
- The circumstances to consider, which the text lists: general economic conditions; the possible effect of inflation or deflation; the expected tax consequences of decisions; the role of each investment within the overall portfolio; the expected total return (income and appreciation of capital); the beneficiaries' other resources; needs for liquidity, regularity of income, and preservation or appreciation of capital; an asset's special relationship to the purposes of the trust or to a beneficiary. A question that offers these items expects "all of them."
- Diversifying is a duty, absent special circumstances.
- No type of investment is prohibited in itself; no more legal list (the old list of investments permitted to trustees).
- Delegation of management is permitted, with care in selecting the agent, defining the scope of the delegation, and monitoring it.
- Duties of loyalty, of impartiality among beneficiaries, and of keeping costs to what is reasonable. A fiduciary with special skills must use them.
- Compliance with the rule is judged at the time of the decision, not in hindsight based on results.
- A trustee puts the entire trust into the stock of a single company he knows well. Breach Duty to diversify, absent special circumstances.
- A trustee includes 5% in small-company stocks in a diversified portfolio; one of them loses 60%. No breach on that fact alone The portfolio is judged as a whole, at the time of the decision.
- A trustee with no financial expertise entrusts management to a registered adviser, whom he selected with care and reviews every quarter. Permitted Prudent delegation.
- A trustee refuses any investment other than government bonds "because the law requires it." False There is no longer a legal list; no type of investment is required or prohibited in itself.
Soft dollars: Exchange Act § 28(e)
An adviser who manages accounts chooses the broker-dealer that executes his clients' orders, and it is the clients who pay the commissions. Some broker-dealers offer the adviser research services in exchange for that order flow. The adviser is therefore paying for his research with his clients' money: hence the name soft dollars, as opposed to the hard dollars he would pay out of his own funds. It is an obvious conflict of interest. The law tolerates it within a precise limit: what the adviser receives must serve to manage the clients' accounts better, not to run his business.
- A money manager who exercises discretion may have his clients pay a commission higher than the lowest available without breaching his fiduciary duty, if he determines in good faith that it is reasonable in relation to the brokerage and research services received. This is a safe harbor. The determination is made on the transaction or on all the accounts the manager manages with discretion: the research may benefit all his accounts, not only the one that paid the commission. A client therefore cannot object that his own account does not hold the securities studied.
- Inside the safe harbor: research reports, analyses, portfolio analysis software, market data, registration fees for a research conference.
- Outside the safe harbor: rent, furniture, general office equipment, salaries, travel, hotel, meals, marketing costs.
- Mixed-use product: only the research portion is paid for with soft dollars; the rest is paid by the adviser.
- The arrangement is a conflict of interest: it is disclosed in the brochure (Form ADV Part 2A).
A broker-dealer provides an adviser with a data terminal worth $10,000 a year. The adviser uses it 70% to analyze securities and 30% for his bookkeeping.
- Research portion: 10,000 × 70% = $7,000. It may be paid for with soft dollars, through clients' commissions.
- Administrative portion: 10,000 × 30% = $3,000. The adviser pays it out of his own pocket.
- The arrangement appears in his brochure, since it gives him an incentive to choose this broker-dealer.
Quick test for an exam list: whatever helps to make an investment decision is inside the safe harbor; whatever helps to run the office (rent, salaries, furniture) or is a personal perk (travel, hotel, meals) is not.
Conflicts of interest and compensation
A conflict of interest exists whenever the agent or the firm has a personal reason to prefer one solution over another. It is not always prohibited: it must be known. By the firm first, which must be able to monitor it; then by the customer, who must be able to take it into account. Hence the words that recur throughout this section: prior written notice.
- Disclosure of compensation: commission or markup on the confirmation; account fees; fund charges (loads, 12b-1); third-party payments that create an incentive to recommend (revenue sharing, differential commissions). Under Reg BI, these conflicts are disclosed in writing and mitigated.
- Outside business activity (FINRA Rule 3270): requires prior written notice to the firm of any compensated activity outside the firm, or any position as an employee, independent contractor, sole proprietor, officer, director, or partner of another entity, even if unpaid. The two cases are joined by "or": either one is enough. A purely passive investment is not covered.
- Private securities transaction (FINRA Rule 3280): detailed prior written notice; if the associated person is compensated, the firm approves or disapproves in writing, and if it approves, it records and supervises the transaction. Without that, it is selling away.
- Gifts (FINRA Rule 3220): no more than $300 per person per year in relation to the business of the recipient's employer (limit raised on March 30, 2026; it was $100 before).
- Written complaints: to be forwarded to the firm without delay; the firm records them and responds to them.
- Confidentiality: disclose a customer's information only with the customer's consent or when required by law (details of Regulation S-P in chapter 8).
- An agent gives paid tennis lessons on weekends, without informing his firm. Violation Any compensated outside activity requires written notice, in advance, even if it has nothing to do with securities.
- An agent serves meals on weekends at a charity, with no compensation and no officer role. Outside Rule 3270 Neither compensation nor a position with another entity. The firm may still require disclosure.
- An agent serves as a volunteer, without compensation, on the board of directors of the same charity. Prior written notice The rule covers any position as an officer or director of another entity, paid or not.
- An agent sells customers, for a commission, interests in a private placement that his firm does not distribute, after only telling the firm orally. Selling away Detailed written notice was required and, since he is compensated, the firm's written approval.
- An agent receives a $1,200 watch from a fund manager as thanks for his sales. Violation Above the annual gift limit ($300 since 2026, $100 before).
- An agent opens a brokerage account at a competitor to trade there without his firm seeing it. Violation FINRA 3210: prior written consent of the employer (chapter 3).
- An agent's firm is a market maker in the security he recommends; he tells the customer before the order and the confirmation states it. Compliant Conflict disclosed.
On September 15, 2026, the SEC approved FINRA Rule 3290 (Outside Activities Requirements), which will replace Rules 3270 and 3280. Its effective date has not yet been set: until it is, Rules 3270 and 3280 described above remain in force, and they are what the exam expects. The principle is kept (prior written notice; for a compensated securities transaction outside the firm, a written decision by the firm, which approves, approves with conditions, or disapproves), but the new rule focuses on investment-related activities. Check the effective date on finra.org before your exam.
Conflicts specific to advisers
- Principal transaction (the IA sells to the client from its own inventory, or buys from the client): written disclosure of the capacity and consent of the client before the completion of the transaction (USA § 102(a)(3)).
- Agency cross (the IA advises one side and acts as broker for both): prior written consent, a confirmation for each transaction, an annual statement, and the IA may not recommend the transaction to both sides.
- Fiduciary duty: the IA always puts the client's interest ahead of its own and discloses any conflict in writing before giving advice.
Cybersecurity and data protection
- Written policies to protect customer information (Regulation S-P for BDs; the 2019 NASAA rule for state-registered advisers).
- Expected good practices: multi-factor authentication, encryption of data and portable devices, individual passwords that are never shared, software updates, control of remote access, call-back verification of wire instructions received by email (phishing), staff training.
- Lost device or suspicious access: immediate report to the firm, which applies its incident response plan and notifies the persons affected.
- Identity theft: a program to detect warning signs (red flags) at account opening and throughout the life of the account.
- Never log in to a customer's account with the customer's credentials.
- "The customer agrees" is not enough to borrow from a customer, guarantee against a loss, or act without written authorization where it is required.
- An order to "buy 100 shares of XYZ when you think the time is right" is not discretionary. "Invest $20,000 in technology, you choose" is.
- Reimbursing a loss out of your own pocket to calm a customer down is a violation.
- Splitting a commission with an agent of the same firm is permitted; with an unregistered accountant or an agent of an unrelated firm, it is not.
- Reporting exploitation of a vulnerable adult is mandatory under the Model Act; delaying a disbursement and notifying a third party are optional.
- Reg BI: best interest of the retail customer at each recommendation; four obligations (disclosure, care, conflict of interest, compliance); sales contests on a specific security must be eliminated; no ongoing monitoring. The adviser, by contrast, is a fiduciary at all times.
- Suitability: reasonable-basis, customer-specific, quantitative. Churning = excessive turnover and costs.
- Markup: measured on the prevailing market price; 5% is a guide, not a rule; does not cover securities sold by prospectus.
- Agent's discretion: prior writing, except for time and price. Three A's: asset, amount, action. Order from a third party: written power of attorney.
- Borrowing from or lending to a customer: prohibited, except with a lending institution. Sharing in an account: writing from the customer and from the firm. Guarantee against loss: always prohibited. Commingling: prohibited.
- Selling away: no transaction off the firm's books without its prior written authorization. Commissions split only between agents of the same firm.
- Manipulation: wash trade, matched orders, painting the tape, marking the close, spoofing, layering, pump and dump. Lawful: arbitrage, stabilization.
- Insider trading: material, nonpublic information, in breach of a duty; tipper and tippee; three times the profit; do not trade, report.
- Funds: no "no-load" with a load, a CDSC, or more than 0.25% in 12b-1 fees; point out breakpoints and the letter of intent (13 months); suitable share class; no unjustified switch and no selling dividends.
- Vulnerable adults (age 65): mandatory report to the Administrator and to APS; optional delay of disbursement, 15 then 25 business days; notice within 2 business days; civil and administrative immunity.
- Soft dollars: research and brokerage inside the safe harbor; overhead, travel, and meals outside it; must be disclosed.
- Compensated outside activity, or any position as employee, officer, director or partner of another entity even if unpaid, and private transactions: prior written notice; gifts capped at $300.
Chapter quiz
Key numbers
Every deadline and threshold in the course on one page, grouped by topic. The right-hand column gives the source, so you know which level (state or federal) a question is aiming at.
The exam
| Number | What it refers to | Source |
|---|---|---|
| 65 / 60 / 5 | Total questions / scored / unscored pretest | NASAA |
| 43 of 60 | Passing score (72%) | NASAA |
| 75 minutes | Time allowed | NASAA |
| 120 days | Window to take the exam after enrolling | NASAA / FINRA |
| 30 / 30 / 180 days | Waiting period after the 1st failure, the 2nd, then the 3rd and each one after; 60 days instead of 180 for exam windows opening on or after January 4, 2027 | NASAA |
| 2 years | How long a passed exam stays valid without registration | NASAA model rule |
Registration of persons
| Number | What it refers to | Source |
|---|---|---|
| noon, 30th day | Registration becomes effective (BD, agent, IA, IAR) | USA § 202 |
| December 31 | All registrations of persons expire | USA § 201(e) |
| 30 days / 1 year | Withdrawal takes effect / Administrator's remaining jurisdiction | USA § 204(e) |
| 45 days | SEC deadline to grant a BD registration or institute denial proceedings | Exchange Act § 15(b)(1) |
| 60th day | Form BDW takes effect at the federal level | SEC Rule 15b6-1 |
| 30 days / 10 days | Form U4 amendment / when it involves a statutory disqualification | FINRA By-Laws |
| 30 days | Form U5 filed after the association ends, with a copy to the individual | FINRA By-Laws |
| 5 years / 10 years | Residential history / employment history on Form U4 | Form U4 |
| no limit / 10 years / unpaid | Form U4 disclosure: any felony (conviction or charge) / bankruptcies and compromises with creditors / judgments and liens | Form U4, questions 14A, 14K, 14M |
| 30 calendar days | Employer consent for an account opened elsewhere before hiring | FINRA 3210 |
| 30 days + 14 days | How long the account must have existed and been assigned to the agent, to serve a customer temporarily in another state | Exchange Act § 15(i)(3)-(4) |
| 10 business days | Filing the agent application when the customer stays 30 days or moves | Exchange Act § 15(i)(3)-(4) |
| 1 year / 3 years | Inspection of OSJs / of non-supervisory branches; annual compliance meeting | FINRA 3110 |
| 5 clients | De minimis for an IA or IAR with no place of business in the state (12 months) | USA § 201(c) |
| $25M / $100M / $110M / $90M | Small adviser / optional SEC threshold / mandatory SEC / back to the state | Advisers Act § 203A, Rule 203A-1 |
| $200M · 15 states | Pension consultants / multi-state advisers allowed to register with the SEC | SEC Rule 203A-2 |
| $150M | Private fund advisers exempt from SEC registration | Advisers Act § 203(m) |
| $35,000 / $10,000 | Minimum IA net worth with custody / with discretion | NASAA 202(d)-1 |
| $500, 6 months | Prepaid fees: positive net worth and balance sheet | NASAA 202(d)-1 |
| next business day | Notice to the Administrator of insufficient net worth | NASAA 202(d)-1 |
| 90 days / 120 days | Annual Form ADV update / annual brochure delivery | Form ADV, brochure rule |
| 3 business days | Returning securities received by mistake; forwarding a third-party check (no custody) | NASAA 102(e)(1)-1 |
| quarterly · annual | Qualified custodian statements / surprise examination by a CPA (custody) | NASAA 102(e)(1)-1 |
Securities
| Number | What it refers to | Source |
|---|---|---|
| 1 year | How long a securities registration stays effective (or for as long as the distribution lasts) | USA § 305(i) |
| 5 business days | Statement on file for registration by filing | USA § 302(c) |
| 10 days / 2 business days | Coordination: registration statement on file / price and commissions on file | USA § 303(c) |
| 36 months · $4M · $5 | Filing: issuer's operating history, net worth, minimum price per share | USA § 302(a) |
| quarterly | Maximum frequency of reports that can be required during a registration | USA § 305(j) |
| 10 offerees | Private placement under the USA (12 months, noninstitutional, in the state) | USA § 402(b)(9) |
| 10 subscribers | Pre-organization certificates | USA § 402(b)(10) |
| 90 days | Security outstanding for the manual exemption; warrants to existing holders | USA § 402(b)(2), (11) |
| 270 days, $50,000, top 3 ratings | Exempt commercial paper | USA § 402(a)(10) |
| 20 days | Minimum cooling-off period for a public offering | Securities Act |
| 15 days | Form D after the first sale (SEC and state notice filing) | Reg D; USA § 307 |
| $200,000 / $300,000 / $1M | Accredited investor: individual income / joint income with spouse / net worth excluding primary residence | Reg D, Rule 501 |
| 35 | Maximum number of nonaccredited purchasers under Rule 506(b) | Reg D |
| 2/3 | Out-of-state circulation of a newspaper: no offer in the state | USA § 414(e) |
Procedure and penalties
| Number | What it refers to | Source |
|---|---|---|
| $5,000 / 3 years | Maximum fine and prison term | USA § 409 |
| 5 years | Criminal statute of limitations | USA § 409 |
| 3 years / 2 years | Civil statute of limitations: from the sale / from discovery, whichever comes first | USA § 410(f) |
| 30 days | Rescission offer: accept (keep the security) or reject in writing (security was sold) | USA § 410(g) |
| 10 years | Maximum age of a conviction used as grounds for denial | USA § 204(a)(2)(C) |
| 15 days | Hearing after a summary order, on written request | USA § 204(c), 306(b), 402(c) |
| 60 days | Judicial review of an order (does not stay the order) | USA § 411 |
| 90 days / 30 days | Proceeding based solely on a final judicial or administrative order disclosed by the applicant before effectiveness (persons, not renewals) / on a fact known at effectiveness (securities) | USA 1956 as amended § 204(a), last paragraph; § 306(a) |
| $500,000 / $250,000 | SIPC: limit per customer / of which cash | SIPA |
| 3 times | Federal civil penalty for insider trading: the profit made or loss avoided | Exchange Act § 21A |
Communications, accounts, records
| Number | What it refers to | Source |
|---|---|---|
| 6 years / 3 years / 2 years | BD records: blotters, ledgers, account records / communications, orders, confirmations / easily accessible period | SEC 17a-4 |
| life of the firm | BD organizational documents | SEC 17a-4(d) |
| 5 years, first 2 | IA records / of that period, the part kept at the principal office | NASAA 203(a)-2 |
| 30 days / 36 months | Account record sent to the customer: after opening / thereafter | SEC 17a-3(a)(17) |
| quarterly | Minimum account statement frequency for a BD | FINRA 2231 |
| 3 months | Holding mail with no particular reason given | FINRA 3150 |
| 25 persons / 30 days | Line between correspondence and retail communication | FINRA 2210 |
| 10 business days | FINRA filing: before use (new member, 1 year) / after use (funds) | FINRA 2210 |
| $100 | Paid testimonial that must be disclosed in a BD advertisement | FINRA 2210 |
| 15 days | Signed options agreement after account approval | FINRA 2360 |
| 100 shares | Size of one option contract | |
| 50% | Initial margin | Regulation T |
| 25% / 30% | Maintenance margin: long position / short position | FINRA 4210 |
| debit ÷ 0.75 · credit ÷ 1.30 | Maintenance call trigger: long account (floor value) / short account (ceiling value) | FINRA 4210 |
| $2,000 | Minimum equity in a margin account | FINRA 4210 |
| settlement + 2 business days | Deadline to pay for a purchase (payment period) | Regulation T |
| 140% | Maximum rehypothecation, as a proportion of the debit balance | SEC 15c3-3 |
| $25,000 (former) | Pattern day trader, rule eliminated on June 4, 2026 (phased implementation through October 20, 2027) | FINRA 4210 (former version); Regulatory Notice 26-10 |
| 30 days | Opt-out (example of a reasonable period); notice of a data breach | Regulation S-P |
| 48 hours / 5 business days | IA brochure delivery / termination without penalty | Brochure rule |
| $1.4M / $2.7M | Qualified client since June 29, 2026: assets under management / net worth (previously $1.1M / $2.2M) | Advisers Act Rule 205-3 |
Ethics
| Number | What it refers to | Source |
|---|---|---|
| 5% | Markup policy: a guideline, not a rule | FINRA 2121 |
| 0.25% | 12b-1 and service fees above which a fund cannot be called "no-load" | NASAA 1997 |
| 1, 5, and 10 years | Total return that must accompany a fund's current yield | NASAA 1997 |
| 10 business days | Oral discretion allowed for an IA | NASAA 102(a)(4)-1 |
| 65 years old | Eligible adult (or an adult protected under state law) | NASAA Model Act |
| 2 / 7 business days | Notice of the delayed disbursement / report on the internal review | NASAA Model Act |
| 15 → 25 business days | Length of the delay / maximum at an agency's request | NASAA Model Act |
| 15 + 10 + 30 | FINRA temporary hold, in business days | FINRA 2165 |
| $300 | Annual gift limit per person since March 30, 2026 (previously $100) | FINRA 3220 |
Flashcards
Say the answer out loud before you flip the card. Filter by chapter, or keep only the cards you don't know yet.
Glossary
The terms you will read on screen on exam day, each with a plain-English definition. Type a few letters to filter.
Practice exams
65 questions, 75 minutes, just like exam day: 60 scored questions distributed according to the official weighting, plus 5 unscored pretest questions that look no different from the rest. You need 43 correct answers out of 60. Answers and explanations are shown at the end.
- Exams A, B, and C are made up of questions not found in the chapter quizzes, and they do not overlap. The "random draw" exam pulls from the whole bank, with the same distribution.
- One question at a time; you can flag a question "for review" and come back to it from the grid.
- The timer never stops, even if you switch pages or reload: the exam in progress is saved and resumes where you left off.
- Closed book: no going back to the course during the exam. Search is disabled while an exam is in progress, but the site does not block navigation: it is up to you not to open the chapters, or your score means nothing.
Grid: filled box = answered · amber border = flagged for review · thick border = question on screen.
To review
Every question you miss in a chapter quiz or a practice exam lands here and comes back in a loop, in random order. A missed question returns a few questions later; a question leaves the list once you get it right twice in a row, here or anywhere else.